PREPARING FOR THE ACT
®
COLLEGE READINESS ASSESSMENT
2014–2015
Whats Inside
Full-Length Practice Tests, including
a Writing Test
Information about the Optional
Writing Test
Strategies to Prepare for the Tests
What to Expect on Test Day
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puede ver o descargar en espol en
www.actstudent.org/testprep
This booklet is provided free of charge.
Available as a PDF at www.actstudent.org
Contents
1. General Preparation for the ACT Tests . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2
2. Strategies for Taking the ACT Tests . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4
3. What to Expect on Test Day . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 9
4
. Taking the Practice Tests . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 10
Practice Multiple-Choice Tests . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 11
Practice Writing Test . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 53
5. Scoring Your Tests . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 55
How to Score the Multiple-Choice Tests . . . . . . . . 55
How to Score the Writing Test. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 61
6. Sample Answer Document . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 63
A Message to Students
This booklet, which is provided free of charge, is intended
to help you do your best on the ACT
®
college readiness
assessment. Included in this booklet are complete
practice tests—“retired” ACT questions that were
administered to students on a national test date, including
a writing prompt—a sample answer document, answer
keys, and self-scoring instructions.
Read this booklet carefully and take the practice tests well
before test day so you will be familiar with the tests, what
they measure, and the strategies you can use to do your
best on test day.
Go to www.actstudent.org/testprep for additional ACT test
preparation materials, including ACT Online Prep
, The
Real ACT Prep Guide, sample questions, and the Question
of the Day.
ACT is committed to representing the diversity of our
society in all its aspects, including race, ethnicity, and
gender. Thus, test passages, questions, and writing
prompts are deliberately chosen to reflect the range of
cultures in our population.
We also are committed to ensuring that test questions and
writing prompts are fair—that they do not disadvantage any
particular group of examinees. Extensive reviews of the
fairness of test materials are rigorously conducted by both
ACT staff and external consultants. We also employ
statistical procedures to help ensure that our test materials
do not unfairly affect the performance of any group.
Note: Since the ACT is a curriculum-based achievement
test, we periodically conduct research and update our tests
accordingly to ensure our test content continues to reflect
classroom instruction and remains a relevant predictor of
college and career readiness. As a result, you may notice
subtle differences between this practice test and the test
you actually take on test day.
1
General Preparation
for the ACT Tests
General Test-Taking
Strategies for the ACT
The ACT contains multiple-choice tests in four areas:
English, Mathematics, Reading, and Science. Each of
these tests contains questions that offer either four or five
answer choices from which you are to choose the correct,
o
r best, answer. The following suggestions apply to all
four tests:
Pace yourself.
The time limits set for each test give nearly everyone enough
time to finish all the questions. However, because the
English, Reading, and Science Tests contain a considerable
amount of text, it is important to pace yourself so you will not
spend too much time on one passage. Similarly, try not to
spend too much time puzzling over an answer to a specific
problem in the Mathematics Test. Go on to the other
questions and come back if there is time. Your supervisor
will announce when you have five minutes remaining on
each test.
Read the directions for each test carefully.
Before you begin taking one of the tests, read the
directions carefully. The English, Reading, and Science
Tests ask for the “best” answer. Do not respond as soon as
you identify a correct answer. Read and consider all of the
answer choices and choose the answer that best responds
to the question.
The Mathematics Test asks for the “correct” answer. Read
each question carefully to make sure you understand the
type of answer required. Then, you may want to work out
the answer you feel is correct and look for it among the
choices given. If your answer is not among the choices
provided, reread the question and consider all of the
answer choices.
Read each question carefully.
It is important that you understand what each question
asks. Some questions will require you to go through several
steps to find the correct or best answer, while others can
be answered more quickly.
Answer the easy questions first.
The best strategy for taking the tests is to answer the easy
questions and skip the questions you find difficult. After
answering all of the easy questions, go back and answer
the more difficult questions if you have time.
2
© 2014 by ACT, Inc. All rights reserved.
NOTE: This booklet is covered by federal copyright laws that prohibit the
reproduction of the test questions without the prior express, written per-
mission of ACT, Inc. No portion of this booklet may be copied or distributed
without written permission of ACT.
ACT endorses the Code of Fair Testing Practices in Education and the Code of
Professional Responsibilities in Educational Measurement, guides to the conduct
of those involved in educational testing. ACT is committed to ensuring that each
of its testing programs upholds the guidelines in each Code. A copy of each Code
may be obtained free of charge from ACT Customer Services (70), PO Box 1008,
Iowa City, IA 52243-1008, 319.337.1429.
U
se logic on more difficult questions.
When you return to the more difficult questions, try to
use logic to eliminate incorrect answers to a question.
Compare the answer choices to each other and note how
they differ. Such differences may provide clues as to what
the question requires. Eliminate as many incorrect answers
as you can, then make an educated guess from the
remaining answers.
Answer every question.
Your score on the tests will be based only on the number of
questions that you answer correctly; there is no penalty
for guessing. Thus, you should answer every question
within the time allowed for each test.
Review your work.
If there is time left after you have answered every question in
a test, go back and check your work on that test. You will not
be allowed to go back to any other test or mark responses to
a test after time has been called on that test.
Be precise in marking your answer document.
Be sure that you properly fill in the correct ovals on your
answer document. Check to be sure that the number of the
line of ovals on your answer document is the same as the
number of the question you are answering and that you
mark only one response for each question.
Erase completely.
If you want to change a multiple-choice answer, be sure to
use a soft eraser that will not leave smudges and erase the
unintended mark completely. Do not cross out answers or
use correction fluid or tape; you must erase. Correction
fluid/tape, smudges, or unintended marks may cause
errors in scoring.
To students approved to test at national test centers
with extended time:
You will be allowed up to 5 hours total to work on the
multiple-choice tests at your own pace, including breaks
between tests. If you are taking the ACT Plus Writing, you
will be allowed up to 5 hours and 45 minutes total to work
on all five tests.
General Test-Taking Strategies
for the ACT Writing Test
The ACT Writing Test lets you show your skill in planning
and composing an essay. It measures writing proficiencies
that are taught in high school and are important for
readiness to succeed in entry-level college composition
courses.
The following general strategies will help if you take the
ACT Writing Test.
Pace yourself.
You will have 30 minutes to write your essay. It is important
to pace yourself in the way that best suits your personal
writing strategy. Many writers do best when they spend
part of their time planning the essay, most of their time
writing the essay, and the last part of their time reviewing
the essay to make corrections and small revisions. You are
unlikely to have time to draft, revise, and recopy your essay.
Budget your time based on your experience in taking essay
tests in school and in other circumstances when you’ve
done writing within a time limit. Your supervisor will
announce when you have five minutes remaining on the
Writing Test.
R
ead the directions carefully.
Before you begin the Writing Test, read the directions
carefully. They tell you the aspects of writing on which your
essay will be evaluated and give instructions on how to
write your essay in the answer folder.
R
ead the writing prompt carefully.
It is important that you understand exactly what the
writing prompt asks you to do. Be sure you have a clear
understanding of the issue in the writing prompt and of the
question you must respond to before you start to plan and
write your essay.
Write (or print) legibly in the answer folder.
If your readers cannot read what you have written, they will
not be able to score your essay. You must write your essay
using a soft lead No. 2 pencil (not a mechanical pencil or
ink pen) on the lined pages in the answer folder. You may
not need all the lined pages, but to ensure you have
enough room to finish, do not skip lines.
Make corrections clear.
If you make corrections, do so thoroughly and legibly. You
may write corrections or additions neatly between the lines
of your essay, but do not write in the margins.
Preparing for Test Day
Prepare well in advance for the tests.
Know what to expect on test day. Familiarize yourself
with the information in this booklet, and at
www.actstudent.org.
Most procedures in this booklet refer to testing on a
National or International Test Date at an ACT test
center. Procedures may differ slightly if you test at
another location.
Take the practice tests in order and review your
responses.
Get plenty of rest the night before the tests.
Carefully review the “Test Day Checklist” at
www.actstudent.org.
Bring the following items with you to the test center:
1. Your paper ticket (if you test on a National or
International ACT Test Date). You will not be
admitted to test without it.
2. Acceptable photo identification. See details on
your ticket or at www.actstudent.org. If you do
not present acceptable photo identification with
your ticket at check-in, you will not be admitted to
test.
3. Sharpened soft lead No. 2 pencils with good
erasers (no mechanical pencils or ink pens). Do
not bring any other writing instruments; you will
not be allowed to use them.
3
4. A watch to pace yourself. Do not bring a watch
with an alarm, because it will disturb other
students. If your alarm sounds during testing, you
will be dismissed and your answer document will
not be scored. Your supervisor will announce when
you have five minutes remaining on each test.
5. A permitted calculator may be used on the ACT
M
athematics Test only. It is your responsibility to
know whether your calculator is permitted. For the
most current information on the ACT calculator
policy, visit www.actstudent.org or call
800.498.6481 for a recorded message.
2
Strategies for Taking
the ACT Tests
The ACT measures the knowledge, understanding, and
skills that you have acquired throughout your education.
Although the sum total of what a person has learned cannot
be changed, your performance in a specific area can be
affected by adequate preparation, especially if it has been
some time since you have taken a course in that area.
There are three strategies that can help you to prepare
yourself for the content included in the ACT:
Familiarize yourself with the content of the ACT tests.
Review the information about the tests that is provided on
the following pages. Note which content areas make up a
large proportion of the tests and which do not. The specific
topics included in each content area are examples of
possible topics; they do not include all of the possibilities.
Refresh your knowledge and skills in the content areas.
Review those content areas you have studied but are not
fresh in your mind. Spend your time refreshing your
knowledge and skills in the content areas that make up
large portions of the tests.
Identify the content areas you have not studied.
If unfamiliar content areas make up major portions of the
tests, consider taking coursework to help you gain
knowledge and skills in these areas before you take the
ACT. Because the ACT measures knowledge and skills
acquired over a period of time, it is unlikely that a “cram”
course covering material that is unfamiliar to you will help
you improve your scores. Longer-term survey courses will
be most helpful to you, because they aim to improve your
knowledge through sustained learning and practice.
ACT English Test
The ACT English Test is a 75-question, 45-minute test that
measures your understanding of the conventions of
standard written English (punctuation, grammar and usage,
and sentence structure) and of rhetorical skills (strategy,
organization, and style). Spelling, vocabulary, and rote
recall of rules of grammar are not tested. The test consists
of five essays, or passages, each of which is accompanied
by a sequence of multiple-choice test questions. Different
passage types are employed to provide a variety of
rhetorical situations. Passages are chosen not only for their
appro priateness in assessing writing skills but also to
reflect students’ interests and experiences.
Some questions refer to underlined portions of the passage
and offer several alternatives to the underlined portion. You
must decide which choice is most appropriate in the
context of the passage. Some questions ask about an
underlined portion, a section of the passage, or the
passage as a whole. You must decide which choice best
answers the question posed. Many questions offer “NO
CHANGE” to the passage as one of the choices. The
q
uestions are numbered consecutively. Each question
number refers to a correspondingly numbered portion
underlined in the passage or to a corresponding numeral in
a box located at the appropriate point in the passage.
Three scores are reported for the ACT English Test: a total
test score based on all 75 questions, a subscore in
U
sage/Mechanics based on 40 questions, and a subscore
in Rhetorical Skills based on 35 questions.
Tips for Taking the ACT English Test
Pace yourself.
The ACT English Test contains 75 questions to be completed
in 45 minutes. If you spend 1
1
2 minutes skimming through
each passage before responding to the questions, then you
will have 30 seconds to answer each question. If possible,
spend less time on each question and use the remaining time
allowed for this test to review your work and return to the
questions on this test that were most difficult for you.
Be aware of the writing style used in each passage.
The five passages cover a variety of topics and are written in
a variety of styles. It is important that you take into account
the writing style used in each passage when you respond to
the questions. In responding to a question, be sure to
understand the context of the question. Consider how the
sentence containing an underlined portion fits in with the
surrounding sentences and into the passage as a whole.
Examine the underlined portions of the passage.
Before responding to a question with an underlined portion,
carefully examine what is underlined in the text. Consider
the elements of writing that are included in each underlined
portion. Some questions will ask you to base your decision
on some specific element of writing, such as the tone or
emphasis the text should convey. Some questions will ask
you to choose the alternative to the underlined portion that
is NOT or LEAST acceptable. The answer choices for each
question will contain changes in one or more of those
elements of writing.
Be aware of questions with no underlined portions.
You will be asked some questions about a section of the
passage or about the passage as a whole, in light of a
given rhetorical situation. Questions of this type are often
identified by a question number in a box located at the
appropriate point in the passage. Questions about the
entire passage are placed at the end of the passage and
introduced by a horizontal box enclosing the following
instruction: “Questions ___ and ___ ask about the
preceding passage as a whole.”
Note the differences in the answer choices.
Many of the questions in the test will involve more than one
aspect of writing. Examine each answer choice and how it
differs from the others. Be careful not to select an answer
that corrects one error but causes a different error.
4
D
etermine the best answer.
Two approaches can be taken to determine the best answer
to a question in which you are to choose the best alternative
to an underlined portion. In the first approach, you can
reread the sentence or sentences, substituting each of the
possible answer choices for the underlined portion to
determine the best choice. In the second approach, you can
decide how the underlined portion might best be phrased in
s
tandard written English or in terms of the particular question
posed. If you think the underlined portion is the best answer,
you should select “NO CHANGE.” If not, you should check to
see whether your phrasing is one of the other answer
choices. If you do not find your phrasing, you should choose
the best of the answers presented. For questions cued by a
number in a box, you must decide which choice is most
appropriate in terms of the question posed or the stated
rhetorical situation.
Reread the sentence, using your selected answer.
Once you have selected the answer you feel is best, reread
the corresponding sentence(s) of the passage, inserting
your selected answer at the appropriate place in the text to
make sure it is the best answer within the context of the
passage.
Content Covered by the ACT English Test
Six elements of effective writing are included in the English
Test: punctuation, grammar and usage, sentence structure,
strategy, organization, and style. The questions covering
punctuation, grammar and usage, and sentence structure
make up the Usage/Mechanics subscore. The questions
covering strat egy, organization, and style make up the
Rhetorical Skills subscore. A brief description and the
approximate percentage of the test devoted to each
element of effective writing are given below.
USAGE/MECHANICS
Punctuation (10–15%). Questions in this category test your
knowledge of the conventions of internal and end-of-
sentence punctuation, with emphasis on the relationship of
punctuation to meaning (for example, avoiding ambiguity,
indicating appositives).
Grammar and Usage (15–20%). Questions in this cate gory
test your understanding of agreement between subject and
verb, between pronoun and antecedent, and between
modifiers and the word modified; verb formation; pronoun
case; formation of comparative and superlative adjectives
and adverbs; and idiomatic usage.
Sentence Structure (20–25%). Questions in this category
test your understanding of relationships between
and among clauses, placement of modifiers, and shifts in
construction.
RHETORICAL SKILLS
Strategy (15–20%). Questions in this category test how well
you develop a given topic by choosing expressions
appropriate to an essay’s audience and purpose; judging
the effect of adding, revising, or deleting supporting
material; and judging the relevancy of statements in
context.
Organization (10–15%). Questions in this category test how
well you organize ideas and choose effective opening,
transitional, and closing sentences.
Style (15–20%). Questions in this category test how well
you choose precise and appropriate words and images,
m
aintain the level of style and tone in an essay, manage
sentence elements for rhetorical effectiveness, and avoid
ambiguous pronoun references, wordiness, and
redundancy.
ACT Mathematics Test
You may use a calculator on the Mathematics Test.
S
ee www.actstudent.org for details about prohibited
models and features.
The ACT Mathematics Test is a 60-question, 60-minute test
designed to assess the mathematical skills students have
typically acquired in courses taken up to the beginning of
grade 12. The test presents multiple-choice questions that
require you to use reasoning skills to solve practical
problems in mathematics. Most questions are self-
contained. Some questions may belong to a set of several
questions (e.g., several questions about the same graph or
chart). Knowledge of basic formulas and computational
skills are assumed as background for the problems, but
recall of complex formulas and extensive computation is
not required. The material covered on the test emphasizes
the major content areas that are prerequisites to successful
performance in entry-level courses in college mathematics.
Four scores are reported for the ACT Mathematics Test: a
total test score based on all 60 questions, a subscore in
Pre-Algebra/Elementary Algebra based on 24 questions, a
subscore in Intermediate Algebra/Coordinate Geometry
based on 18 questions, and a subscore in Plane
Geometry/Trigonometry based on 18 questions.
Tips for Taking the ACT Mathematics Test
Pace yourself.
The ACT Mathematics Test contains 60 questions to be
completed in 60 minutes. You have an average of 1 minute
per question. If possible, spend less time on each question
and use the remaining time allowed for this test to review
your work and return to the questions on this test that were
most difficult for you.
If you use a calculator, use it wisely.
All of the mathematics problems can be solved without
using a calculator. Many of the problems are best done
without a calculator. Use good judgment in deciding when,
and when not, to use a calculator. For example, for some
problems you may wish to do scratch work to clarify your
thoughts on the question before you begin using a
calculator to do computations.
Solve the problem.
For working out the solutions to the problems, you will
usually do scratch work in the space provided in the test
booklet. You may wish to glance over the answer choices
after reading the questions. However, working backwards
from the answer choices provided can take a lot of time
and may not be effective.
5
L
ocate your solution among the answer choices.
Once you have solved the problem, look for your answer
among the choices. If your answer is not included among
the choices, carefully reread the problem to see whether
y
ou missed important information. Pay careful attention to
the question being asked. If an equation is to be selected,
check to see whether the equation you think is best can be
transformed into one of the answer choices provided.
Make sure you answer the question.
The solutions to many questions on the test will involve
several steps. Make sure your answer accounts for all the
necessary steps. Frequently, questions include answer
choices that are based on incomplete solutions.
Make sure your answer is reasonable.
Sometimes an error in computation will result in an answer
that is not practically possible for the situation described.
Always think about your answer to determine whether it is
reasonable.
Check your work.
You may arrive at an incorrect solution by making common
errors in the problem-solving process. Thus, if there is time
remaining before the end of the Mathematics Test, it is
important that you reread the questions and check your
answers to make sure they are correct.
Content Covered by the ACT Mathematics Test
Six content areas are included in the Mathematics Test: pre-
algebra, elementary algebra, intermediate algebra,
coordinate geometry, plane geometry, and trigonometry. The
questions covering pre-algebra and elementary algebra
make up the Pre-Algebra/Elementary Algebra subscore. The
questions covering intermediate algebra and coordinate
geometry make up the Intermediate Algebra/Coordinate
Geometry subscore. The questions covering plane geometry
and trigonometry make up the Plane Geometry/Trigonometry
subscore. A brief description and the approximate
percentage of the test devoted to each content area are
given below.
PRE-ALGEBRA/ELEMENTARY ALGEBRA
Pre-Algebra (20–25%). Questions in this content area are
based on basic operations using whole numbers, decimals,
fractions, and integers; place value; square roots and
approximations; the concept of exponents; scientific notation;
factors; ratio, proportion, and percent; linear equations in one
variable; absolute value and ordering numbers by value;
elementary counting techniques and simple proba bility; data
collection, representation, and interpretation;
and understanding simple descriptive statistics.
Elementary Algebra (15–20%). Questions in this content area
are based on properties of exponents and square roots,
evaluation of algebraic expressions through substitution,
using variables to express functional relationships,
understanding algebraic operations, and the solution of
quadratic equations by factoring.
INTERMEDIATE ALGEBRA/COORDINATE GEOMETRY
Intermediate Algebra (15–20%). Questions in this content
area are based on an understanding of the quadratic formula,
rational and radical expressions, absolute value equations
a
nd inequalities, sequences and patterns, systems of
equations, quadratic inequalities, functions, modeling,
matrices, roots of polynomials, and complex numbers.
Coordinate Geometry (15–20%). Questions in this content
area are based on graphing and the relations between
equations and graphs, including points, lines, polynomials,
c
ircles, and other curves; graphing inequalities; slope;
parallel and perpendicular lines; distance; midpoints; and
conics.
PLANE GEOMETRY/TRIGONOMETRY
Plane Geometry (20–25%). Questions in this content area
are based on the properties and relations of plane figures,
including angles and relations among perpendicular and
parallel lines; properties of circles, triangles, rectangles,
parallelograms, and trapezoids; transformations; the
concept of proof and proof techniques; volume; and
applications of geometry to three dimensions.
Trigonometry (5–10%). Questions in this content area are
based on understanding trigonometric relations in right
triangles; values and properties of trigonometric functions;
graphing trigonometric functions; modeling using
trigonometric functions; use of trigonometric identities; and
solving trigonometric equations.
ACT Reading Test
The ACT Reading Test is a 40-question, 35-minute test
that measures your reading comprehension. The test
questions ask you to derive meaning from several texts by
(1) referring to what is explicitly stated and (2) reasoning to
determine implicit meanings. Specifically, questions will
ask you to use referring and reasoning skills to determine
main ideas; locate and interpret significant details;
understand sequences of events; make comparisons;
comprehend cause-effect relationships; determine the
meaning of context-dependent words, phrases, and
statements; draw generalizations; and analyze the author’s
or narrator’s voice and method. The test comprises four
sections, each containing one long or two shorter prose
passages that are representative of the level and kinds of
text commonly encountered in first-year college curricula.
Each passage is preceded by a heading that identifies
what type of passage it is (for example, “Literary
Narrative”), names the author, and may include a brief note
that helps in understanding the passage. Each section
contains a set of multiple-choice test questions. These
questions do not test the rote recall of facts from outside
the passage, isolated vocabulary items, or rules of formal
logic. In sections that contain two short passages, some of
the questions involve both of the passages in the section.
For an example of a section with two short prose
passages, visit www.actstudent.org/sampletest.
6
Three scores are reported for the ACT Reading Test: a total
test score based on all 40 questions, a subscore in Social
Studies/Sciences reading skills (based on the 20 questions
on the social studies and natural sciences passages), and a
subscore in Arts/Literature reading skills (based on the 20
questions on the literary narrative and humanities passages).
Tips for Taking the ACT Reading Test
Pace yourself.
The ACT Reading Test contains 40 questions to be
completed in 35 minutes. If you spend 2–3 minutes reading
the passage(s) in each section, then you will have about
3
5 seconds to answer each question. If possible, spend
less time on the passages and the questions and use the
remaining time allowed for this test to review your work and
return to the questions on this test that were most difficult
for you.
Read each passage carefully.
Before you begin answering a question, read the entire
passage (or two short passages) carefully. Be conscious
of relationships between or among ideas. You may make
notes in the test booklet about important ideas in the passages.
Refer to the passages when answering the questions.
Answers to some of the questions will be found by referring
to what is explicitly stated in the text. Other questions will
require you to determine implicit meanings and to draw
conclusions, comparisons, and generalizations. Consider
the text before you answer any question.
Content Covered by the ACT Reading Test
The Reading Test is based on four types of reading
selections: the social studies, the natural sciences,
literary narrative, and the humanities. A subscore in Social
Studies/Sciences reading skills is based on the questions
on the social studies and the natural sciences passages,
and a subscore in Arts/Literature reading skills is based
on the questions on the literary narrative and humanities
passages. A brief description and the approximate
percentage of the test devoted to each type of reading
selection are given below.
Social Studies (25%). Questions in this category are based
on passages in the content areas of anthropology,
archaeology, biography, business, economics, education,
geography, history, political science, psychology, and
sociology.
Natural Sciences (25%). Questions in this category are
based on passages in the content areas of anatomy,
astronomy, biology, botany, chemistry, ecology, geology,
medicine, meteorology, microbiology, natural history,
physiology, physics, technology, and zoology.
Literary Narrative (25%) or Prose Fiction (25%). Questions in
the Literary Narrative category are based on passages from
short stories, novels, memoirs, and personal essays.
Questions in the Prose Fiction category are based on
passages from short stories and novels.
Humanities (25%). Questions in this category are based on
passages in the content areas of architecture, art, dance,
ethics, film, language, literary criticism, music, philosophy,
radio, television, and theater. Questions may be based on
passages from memoirs and personal essays.
ACT Science Test
T
he ACT Science Test is a 40-question, 35-minute test that
measures the interpretation, analysis, evaluation, reasoning,
and problem-solving skills required in the natural sciences.
The test presents several sets of scientific information, each
followed by a number of multiple-choice test questions. The
scientific information is conveyed in one of three different
formats: data representation (graphs, tables, and other
s
chematic forms), research summaries (descriptions of
several related experiments), or conflicting viewpoints
(expressions of several related hypotheses or views that
are inconsistent with one another). The questions require
you to recognize and understand the basic features of, and
concepts related to, the provided information; to examine
critically the relationship between the information provided
and the conclusions drawn or hypotheses developed; and
to generalize from given information to gain new
information, draw conclusions, or make predictions.
You are not permitted to use a calculator on the ACT
Science Test.
One score is reported for the ACT Science Test: a total test
score based on all 40 questions.
Tips for Taking the ACT Science Test
Pace yourself.
The ACT Science Test contains 40 questions to be
completed in 35 minutes. If you spend about 2 minutes
reading each passage, then you will have about 30 seconds
to answer each question. If possible, spend less time on the
passages and the questions and use the remaining time
allowed for this test to review your work and return to the
questions on this test that were most difficult for you.
Read the passage carefully.
Before you begin answering a question, read the scientific
material provided. It is important that you read the entire text
and examine any tables, graphs, or figures. You may want
to make notes about important ideas in the information
provided in the test booklet. Some of the information sets
will describe experiments. You should consider the
experimental design, including the controls and variables,
because questions are likely to address this component of
scientific research.
Note different viewpoints in passages.
Some material will present conflicting points of view, and
the questions will ask you to distinguish among the various
viewpoints. It may be helpful for you to make notes
summarizing each viewpoint next to that section in the test
booklet.
Content Covered by the ACT Science Test
The content of the Science Test includes biology,
chemistry, physics, and the Earth/space sciences (for
example, geology, astronomy, and meteorology).
Advanced knowledge in these subjects is not required, but
knowledge acquired in general, introductory science
courses is needed to answer some of the questions. The
test emphasizes scientific reasoning skills over recall of
scientific content, skill in mathematics, or reading ability.
The scientific information is conveyed in one of three
different formats.
7
Data Representation (30–40%). This format presents
graphic and tabular material similar to that found in science
journals and texts. The questions associated with this
format measure skills such as graph reading, interpretation
of scatter plots, and interpretation of information presented
i
n tables.
Research Summaries (45–55%). This format provides
descriptions of one or more related experiments. The
questions focus upon the design of experiments and the
interpretation of experimental results.
Conflicting Viewpoints (15–20%). This format presents
expressions of several hypotheses or views that, being
based on differing premises or on incomplete data, are
inconsistent with one another. The questions focus upon
the understanding, analysis, and comparison of alternative
viewpoints or hypotheses.
ACT Writing Test (Optional)
If you register for the ACT Plus Writing, you will take the
ACT Writing Test (which must be completed in English)
after you complete the four multiple-choice tests. Taking
the Writing Test will not affect your scores on the multiple-
choice tests or your Composite score. Rather, you will
receive two additional scores: a Combined English/Writing
score on a scale of 1 through 36 and a Writing subscore on
a scale of 2 through 12. You will also receive some
comments on your essay.
The ACT Writing Test is a 30-minute essay test that
measures your writing skills—specifically those writing
skills emphasized in high school English classes and in
entry-level college composition courses. The test consists
of one writing prompt that will define an issue and describe
two points of view on that issue. You are asked to write in
response to a question about your position on the issue
described in the writing prompt. You may adopt either of
the perspectives described in the prompt, or present your
own point of view on the issue. Your score will not be
affected by the point of view you take on the issue.
Your essay will be evaluated on the evidence it gives of
your ability to do the following:
express judgments by taking a position on the issue in
the writing prompt;
maintain a focus on the topic throughout the essay;
develop a position by using logical reasoning and by
supporting your ideas;
organize ideas in a logical way; and
use language clearly and effectively according to the
conventions of standard written English.
Your essay will be scored holistically—that is, on the basis
of the overall impression created by all the elements of the
writing. Two trained readers will score your essay, each
giving it a rating from 1 (low) to 6 (high). The sum of those
ratings is your Writing subscore. If the readers’ ratings
disagree by more than one point, a third reader will
evaluate your essay and resolve the discrepancy.
T
ips for Taking the ACT Writing Test
P
ace yourself.
The ACT Writing Test gives you 30 minutes to read and
think about the issue in the prompt, and to plan and write
your essay. When asked to write a timed essay, most
writers find it useful to do some planning before they write
the essay, and to do a final check of the essay when it is
finished. It is unlikely that you will have time to draft, revise,
and recopy your essay.
Prewrite.
Before writing, carefully consider the prompt and make
sure you understand it—reread it if you aren’t sure. Decide
how you want to answer the question in the prompt. Then
jot down your ideas on the topic and how you will explain
your point of view on the issue. Write down what you think
others might say in opposition to your point of view and
what you would say in reply. Think of how to organize your
essay. Do your prewriting in your Writing Test booklet.
Write.
At the beginning of your essay, make sure readers will see
that you understand the issue. Explain your point of view in
a clear and logical way. Discuss the issue in a broader
context or evaluate the implications of the issue. Address
what others might say in opposition and present a
counterargument. Use specific examples. Vary the
structure of your sentences, and use interesting and
precise word choices. Stay on topic and end with a strong
conclusion.
Review your essay.
Take a few minutes before time is called to read over your
essay. Correct any mistakes. If you find any words that are
hard to read, recopy them. Make corrections and revisions
neatly, between the lines. Do not write in the margins. Your
readers know you had only 30 minutes to compose and
write your essay. Within that time limit, try to make your
essay as polished as you can.
Practice.
There are many ways to prepare for the ACT Writing
Test. These include reading newspapers and magazines,
listening to news analyses on television or radio, and
participating in discussions and debates.
One of the best ways to prepare for the ACT Writing Test is
to practice writing with different purposes for different
audiences. The writing you do in your classes will help you.
So will writing essays, stories, editorials, a personal journal,
or other writing you do on your own.
It is also a good idea to practice writing within a time limit.
Taking the practice ACT Writing Test will give you a sense
of how much additional practice you may need. You might
want to take the practice ACT Writing Test even if you do
not plan to take the ACT Plus Writing, because this will help
build skills that are important in college-level learning and
in the world of work.
8
3
What to Expect
on Test Day
Reporting Time
For National and International Test Dates, you must report
to the test center by the time stated on your ticket, normally
8
:00 a.m. If you are late, you will not be admitted to test. If
your ticket does not list a specific room, test center staff or
posted signs will direct you.
Requirements for Admission
At check-in, you will be required to show both your
paper ticket and acceptable photo ID or you will not be
admitted to test. See ID requirements on your ticket or
at www.actstudent.org.
In the Test Room
The supervisor or proctor will direct you to a seat. If
you need a left-handed desk, tell your supervisor as
you enter.
Do not leave the test room after you have been admitted.
Only pencils, erasers, a permitted calculator, and your
ticket will be allowed on your desk.
You will be required to put all other personal
belongings away.
You are not allowed to have scratch paper, books,
dictionaries, notes or other aids, highlighters, colored
pens or pencils, mechanical pencils, ink pens,
correction fluid, reading material, or any electronic
devices other than a permitted calculator.
You may not use tobacco in any form or have food or
drink (including water) in the test room. You may have
snacks and drinks outside the test room during break.
Testing will begin as soon as all examinees present at
8:00 a.m. are checked in and seated.
Listen carefully to all directions read by your supervisor.
It is important that you follow all directions carefully.
On some test dates, ACT tries out questions to develop
future versions of the tests. You may be asked to take a
fifth test, the results of which will not be reflected in your
reported scores. The fifth test could be multiple-choice
or one for which you will create your own answers.
Please try your best on these questions, because your
participation can help shape the future of the ACT. If
you are in a test room where the fifth test is
administered, you will be dismissed at about 12:35 p.m.
Prohibited Behavior at the Test
Center
The following behaviors are prohibited. You will be
dismissed and your answer document will not be scored if
you are found:
Filling in or altering ovals on a test section or continuing
to write the essay after time has been called on that test
section. This means that you cannot make any changes
to a test section outside of the designated time for that
section, even to fix a stray mark.
Looking back at a test section on which time has
already been called.
Looking ahead in the test booklet.
Looking at another person’s test booklet or answer
document.
Giving or receiving assistance by any means.
Using a prohibited calculator.
Using a calculator on any test section other than
Mathematics.
Sharing a calculator with another person.
Using any device at any time during testing or during
b
reak other than an approved calculator, an approved
accommodation device, or an assistive device that does
not require approval, such as a hearing aid. All other
electronic devices, including cell phones and wearable
devices, must be turned off and placed out of reach
from the time you are admitted to test until you are
dismissed after testing concludes. This includes
assistive devices for which reasonable alternatives are
available. For example, if you need glasses, use glasses
that do not have electronics attached or built in.
Attempting to remove test materials, including
questions or answers, from the test room in any way,
including in the memory of a calculator.
Using highlight pens, colored pens or pencils, notes,
scratch paper, dictionaries, or other aids.
Not following instructions or abiding by the rules of the
test center.
Exhibiting confrontational, threatening, or unruly
behavior; or violating any laws.
Allowing an alarm to sound in the test room or creating
any other disturbance.
All items brought into the test center, such as hats, purses,
backpacks, cell phones, calculators, and other electronic
devices may be searched at the discretion of ACT and its
testing staff. ACT and its testing staff may confiscate and
retain for a reasonable period of time any item suspected
of having been used, or being capable of being used, in
violation of this list of prohibited behaviors. ACT may also
provide such items to third parties in connection with ACT’s
investigation or the investigation of others. ACT and its
testing staff shall not be responsible for lost, stolen, or
damaged items.
Voiding Your Answer Documents
on Test Day
If you have to leave the test center before completing all
your tests, you must decide whether or not you want your
answer document scored and inform your supervisor of
your decision. If you do not, your answer document will
be scored.
Once you break the seal on your multiple-choice test
booklet, you cannot request a Test Date Change. If you do
not complete all your tests and want to test again, you will
have to pay the full fee for your test option again. If you
want to take the ACT again, see www.actstudent.org for
your options. Once you begin filling out your answer
document, you cannot change from ACT Plus Writing to
the ACT No Writing or the reverse.
9
Testing More Than Once
Y
ou may not receive scores from more than one test taken
during a scheduled national or international test date. For
example, you may test on Saturday or on an authorized
non-Saturday date or on a rescheduled test date—but not
on more than one of those days. If you are admitted and
allowed to test a second time, we will report only the scores
from the first test. The second set of scores will be
cancelled without refund.
Test Information Release
On certain national test dates, if you test at a national test
center, you may order (for an additional fee) a copy of the test
questions, a copy of your answers, a list of correct answers,
and scoring instructions. This service is not available for all
test dates or for other testing programs (e.g., International,
State and District, Special). If you want to request and pay for
this service, check www.actstudent.org to see which test
dates offer this service.
4Taking the Practice Tests
Take the practice tests under conditions as similar as
possible to those you will experience on test day. The
following tips will help you:
The four multiple-choice tests require 2 hours and
55 minutes. Take them in order in one sitting, with a
10- to 15-minute break between Tests 2 and 3.
You will need only sharpened No. 2 pencils with good
erasers. Remove all other items from your desk. You will
not be allowed to use scratch paper.
If you plan to use a permitted calculator on the
Mathematics Test, use the same one you will use on
test day.
Use a digital timer or clock to time yourself on each
practice test. Set your timer for five minutes less than
the time allowed for each test so you can get used to
the verbal announcement of five minutes remaining.
Give yourself only the time allowed for each test.
Detach and use the sample multiple-choice answer
document on pages 63–64.
Read the test directions on the first page of the practice
multiple-choice tests. These are the same directions
that will appear on your test booklet on test day.
Start your timer and begin with Test 1. Continue through
Test 4, taking a 10- to 15-minute break between Tests 2
and 3. If you do not plan to take the ACT Plus Writing,
score your multiple-choice tests using the information
beginning on page 54.
If you plan to take the ACT Plus Writing, read the
directions on the first page of the practice ACT Writing
Test (page 53). These are the same directions that will
appear on your test booklet on test day. Start your
timer, then read the prompt on page 54. After you
understand what the prompt is asking you to do, plan
your essay and then write it on lined paper. (On test
day, your answer document will have lined pages for
you to write your essay.) Score your essay using the
information on pages 61–62.
10
11
Practice Multiple-Choice Tests
Form 1267C
This booklet contains tests in English, Mathematics,
Reading, and Science. These tests measure skills and
abilities highly related to high school course work and
success in college. CALCULATORS MAY BE USED ON
THE MATHEMATICS TEST ONLY.
The questions in each test are numbered, and the
suggested answers for each question are lettered. On the
answer document, the rows of ovals are numbered to
match the questions, and the ovals in each row are
lettered to correspond to the suggested answers.
For each question, first decide which answer is best.
Next, locate on the answer document the row of ovals
numbered the same as the question. Then, locate the oval
in that row lettered the same as your answer. Finally, fill
in the oval completely. Use a soft lead pencil and make
your marks heavy and black. DO NOT USE INK OR A
MECHANICAL PENCIL.
Mark only one answer to each question. If you change
your mind about an answer, erase your first mark
thoroughly before marking your new answer. For each
question, make certain that you mark in the row of ovals
with the same number as the question.
Only responses marked on your answer document will
be scored. Your score on each test will be based only on
the number of questions you answer correctly during the
time allowed for that test. You will NOT be penalized for
guessing. IT IS TO YOUR ADVANTAGE TO ANSWER
EVERY QUESTION EVEN IF YOU MUST GUESS.
You may work on each test ONLY when your test
supervisor tells you to do so. If you finish a test before
time is called for that test, you should use the time
remaining to reconsider questions you are uncertain
about in that test. You may NOT look back to a test on
which time has already been called, and you may NOT go
ahead to another test. To do so will disqualify you from
the examination.
Lay your pencil down immediately when time is called
at the end of each test. You may NOT for any reason fill
in or alter ovals for a test after time is called for that test.
To do so will disqualify you from the examination.
Do not fold or tear the pages of your test booklet.
DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET
UNTIL TOLD TO DO SO.
Directions
© 2014 by ACT, Inc. All rights reserved.
NOTE: This test material is the confidential copyrighted property of
ACT, Inc., and may not be copied, reproduced, sold, or otherwise
transferred without the prior express written permission of ACT, Inc.
Violators of ACT’s copyrights are subject to civil and criminal penalties.
PO BOX 168
IOWA CITY, IA 52243-0168
EXAMINEE STATEMENT, CERTIFICATION, AND SIGNATURE
1. Read the following Statement: By opening this test booklet, I agree to comply with and be bound by
the Terms and Con ditions set forth in the ACT registration materials for this assessment, including
those concerning test security, arbitration, score cancellation, examinee remedies, and ACT’s Privacy
Policy available at www.act.org/privacy.html. I understand that ACT owns the test questions and
responses and affirm that I will not share any test questions or responses with anyone by any form of
communication before, during, or after the assessment administration. I understand that assuming
anyone elses identity to take this test is strictly prohibited and may violate the law and subject me to
legal penalties.
2. Copy the Certification shown below (only the text in italics) on the lines provided. Write in your normal
handwriting.
C
ertification: I agree to the Statement above and certify that I am the person whose name appears
on this form.
3. Sign your name as you would any official document and enter today’s date.
Your Signature Today’s Date
2014
l
2015
PASSAGE I
Dragonfly
The nature trail is six feet wide and
seven miles long. It slithers through the forest like a
snake curving, and bending along the banks of the river.
The county cleared this path and paved it with packed
gravel, so they would have a peaceful place to hike and
bike.
I ride this trail nearly every day—not on a bike,
but on “Luigi.” That’s the nickname I gave my
motorized wheelchair. % Today, Luigi’s battery
1. A. NO CHANGE
B. snake, curving and bending
C. snake curving and bending,
D. snake, curving, and bending,
2. Which of the following alternatives to the underlined
portion would NOT be acceptable?
F. path, paving
G. path and then paved
H. path before paving
J. path paved
3. A. NO CHANGE
B. knowing they
C. that they
D. people
4. F. NO CHANGE
G. day; not on a bike
H. day not on a bike
J. day, not on a bike;
5. If the writer were to delete the preceding sentence, the
essay would primarily lose:
A. a reason why the narrator is in the forest.
B. a detail important for understanding the essay.
C. a contrast to the lighthearted tone of the essay.
D. nothing at all; this information is irrelevant to the
essay.
ENGLISH TEST
45 Minutes—75 Questions
DIRECTIONS: In the five passages that follow, certain
words and phrases are underlined and numbered. In
the right-hand column, you will find alternatives for the
underlined part. In most cases, you are to choose the
one that best expresses the idea, makes the statement
appropriate for standard written English, or is worded
most consistently with the style and tone of the passage
as a whole. If you think the original version is best,
chooseNO CHANGE. In some cases, you will find in
the right-hand column a question about the underlined
part. You are to choose the best answer to the question.
You will also find questions about a section of the pas-
sage, or about the passage as a whole. These questions
do not refer to an underlined portion of the passage, but
rather are identified by a number or numbers in a box.
For each question, choose the alternative you consider
best and fill in the corresponding oval on your answer
document. Read each passage through once before you
begin to answer the questions that accompany it. For
many of the questions, you must read several sentences
beyond the question to determine the answer. Be sure
that you have read far enough ahead each time you
choose an alternative.
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
ACT-67C-PRACTICE
11
1
2
3
4
12
13
is fully charged, I know I can go all the way to the end
of the trail and back. But I always carry a cell phone on
me just in case.
Luigi’s motor moves slowly as we venture along
the trail. I can hear the gravel quietly crunching beneath
Luigi’s rubber wheels. I hear the songs of cardinals in the
trees and the clamor of crickets in the grasses. I hear the
murmur of water slipping over time-smoothed rocks. It is
September, and some of the trees are starting to blush red
and orange at their tips. The wind ruffles my hair and
chills my face as I bounce gently, along in my padded
chair.
Bicyclists streak past in a blur of color and a cloud of
dust I don’t understand their hurry. Luigi can go fast, but I
like to ride slowly, to see like a hovering dragonfly. I want
to see everything that has changed, grown, bloomed, or
died since yesterday. Today I notice that a spider has
woven a web between some honeysuckle bushes by the
bridge. I see that the bank of vibrant yellow black-eyed
Susans by the barbed wire fence is starting to dry and fade
away. I spend an hour; looking and listening and learning.
6. F. NO CHANGE
G. charged, because of that,
H. charged, this means that
J. charged, so
7. Which choice would most logically and effectively
emphasize the positive, friendly attitude the narrator
has toward Luigi?
A. NO CHANGE
B. travels safely
C. proceeds carefully
D. purrs softly
8. F. NO CHANGE
G. You can hear
H. One can even hear
J. While hearing
9. A. NO CHANGE
B. Due to the fact that it is
C. It turns into the month of
D. Because it has turned into
10. F. NO CHANGE
G. gentle, along
H. gently along
J. gentle along,
11. Which choice most effectively leads into the new sub-
ject of this paragraph?
A. NO CHANGE
B. The sun begins to set
C. Nature always impresses me
D. Days can go by quickly
12. F. NO CHANGE
G. dust, however,
H. dust.
J. dust,
13. A. NO CHANGE
B. hour, looking,
C. hour looking;
D. hour looking
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
ACT-67C-PRACTICE
11
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
And now my ride is finished for today. I leave the
trail and come out into the open, manicured park at the
trails end. There, my older brother helps me out of my
chair and into his waiting van. He puts Luigi in the back,
and I return to the world of pavement, streetlights, and
traffic. But in my mind, I am still gliding through the
forest. I am like the water, flowing over ancient stones.
Inside, I am still a dragonfly.
PASSAGE II
Beneath the Streets of New York
At 2 p.m., on October 27, 1904; thousands of
New York City residents poured into the streets of
Manhattan. Their cheers competed with the blare of
ferryboat horns and the whistle of power plants. The
city was celebrating an incredible engineering feat; the
completion of the first section of the New York City
Subway. 2
14. F. NO CHANGE
G. trail’s
H. trails’
J. trails’s
15. Suppose the writers goal had been to write an essay
illustrating the pleasure that people can take in nature.
Would this essay accomplish that goal?
A. Yes, because it focuses on a variety of wildflowers
that the narrator enjoys.
B. Yes, because it focuses on the narrators joy at
having access to nature.
C. No, because it describes the world of the city as
being more important to the narrator.
D. No, because it focuses primarily on the function-
ing of the narrators motorized wheelchair.
16. F. NO CHANGE
G. 2 p.m. on October 27, 1904, thousands
H. 2 p.m., on October 27, 1904; thousands,
J. 2 p.m. on October 27, 1904, thousands,
17. A. NO CHANGE
B. feat, over
C. feat:
D. feat
18. The writer is concerned about the level of detail in the
preceding sentence and is considering deleting the
phrasethe first section of from it. If the writer were
to make this deletion, the paragraph would primarily
lose information that:
F. reveals how expansive the New York City Subway
would become.
G. clarifies that only part of the subway system had
been completed by October 27, 1904.
H. makes clear that by October 27, 1904, construction
of the second section of the subway was already
underway.
J. provides evidence that New York City residents at
this celebration believed the entire subway system
was complete.
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
ACT-67C-PRACTICE
11
Question 15 asks about the preceding passage
as a whole.
14
16
17
14
15
The original subway line was 9.1 miles long and had
twenty-eight stations. [A] The first train took twenty-six
minutes to complete the route, which ran from City Hall
to West 145th Street in under a half an hour. Tens of
thousands of New Yorkers could now avoid traffic jams
by traveling underneath the streets. [B]
As early as 1865, there had been proposals for a
New York subway, but that took decades to resolve the
many political, financial, and technical challenges. The
engineer, William Barclay Parsons accepted responsibility
for overseeing this project.
Parsons decided that most of the subway tunnel
would be constructed using an innovation engineering
method known as “cut and cover.” [C] First, workers used
picks and shovels to remove roads and dig a deep trench.
After installing wooden braces to hold back the earth,
workers built a concrete floor. Tunnel walls were
created: with layers of brick, ceramic blocks, tar-soaked
felt for waterproofing, and concrete. The roof was made
from arch-shaped wooden molds also covered with
concrete. Next, track beds were filled with crushed stone,
and rails were secured to wooden ties. Finally, the roof was
covered with tar-soaked felt, and the roads were rebuilt.
19. A. NO CHANGE
B. in the completion of its route.
C. in twenty-six minutes.
D. DELETE the underlined portion and end the sen-
tence with a period.
20. Which choice would most effectively conclude the
sentence by indicating clearly how the subway system
could address the problem described in the first part of
the sentence?
F. NO CHANGE
G. traveling more effectively.
H. trying something new.
J. using a system.
21. A. NO CHANGE
B. it
C. those
D. DELETE the underlined portion.
22. F. NO CHANGE
G. engineer—William Barclay Parsons
H. engineer William Barclay Parsons,
J. engineer William Barclay Parsons
23. A. NO CHANGE
B. innovate engineer
C. innovative engineering
D. innovate engineering
24. F. NO CHANGE
G. into the ground deeply under where the roads had
previously been removed by them.
H. a trench far down below since it was necessary to
shovel deep into the earth in this method known as
“cut and cover.”
J. DELETE the underlined portion and end the sen-
tence with a period.
25. A. NO CHANGE
B. created, with
C. created with
D. created with:
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
ACT-67C-PRACTICE
11
1
9
2
0
21
2
2
23
24
25
Brightly lit stations welcomed the public, many
of them were skeptical of traveling underground. [D] It
didn’t take long for New Yorkers to adapt, however. The
day after the subway opened, one newspaper reported that
the riders were emerging from underground “having
finished what will be to them the daily routine of the
rest of their lives.” <
26. F. NO CHANGE
G. of whom
H. of who
J. DELETE the underlined portion.
27. A. NO CHANGE
B. therefore.
C. for instance.
D. that is.
28. The writer wishes to add a sentence that describes the
magnitude and expansiveness of the New York City
Subway system today. Given that all the following
statements are true, which one, if added here, would
most clearly and effectively accomplish the writers
goal?
F. Even today, for many New Yorkers that news -
papers account is right!
G. Today, riding a portion of the New York City
Subways 656 miles of mainline track is a daily
routine for more than 4 million people.
H. Today, the New York City Transit Authority con-
tinuously maintains two separate fleets of subway
cars.
J. Now, a typical New York City Subway waiting
platform ranges from 400 to 700 feet.
29. Upon reviewing the essay and finding that some infor-
mation has been left out, the writer composes the fol-
lowing sentence incorporating that information:
This technique, also known asopen excava-
tion, became the standard for subway tunnel-
ing for nearly sixty years.
If the writer were to add this sentence to the essay, the
sentence would most logically be placed at Point:
A. A.
B. B.
C. C.
D. D.
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
ACT-67C-PRACTICE
11
Question 29 asks about the preceding passage
as a whole.
26
27
16
17
PASSAGE III
Diego Rivera: The People’s Painter
In the 1920s, Mexican artist Diego Rivera
(1886–1957) practiced the art of painting frescoes, large
murals done on fresh plaster. Rivera’s frescoes appeared
on the outside walls of buildings in Mexico City, in plain
sight of any passerby. This brought art out of the elite
galleries by catering to the upper class and literally to the
public.
Rivera attracted for his belief controversy that the
working class should wield more political power. His
dominant artistic subject in his art was as expansive
than his frescoes: the role played by laborers in the past,
present, and future of humanity. One of his frescoes depict
a progression through time and can be read as time lines
from left to right. For example, on the left side of a fresco,
there might be field workers hunched over in fatigue and
surrounded by the tools of their trade. On the right side,
after they have moved through history. The same workers
stand tall, radiating strength and confidence. Such
empowerment of the worker were to be the bright future
Rivera envisioned for all the workers of the world.
30. The writer wants to suggest that the art of the fresco
had been in decline previous to Rivera. Which choice
best accomplishes that goal?
F. NO CHANGE
G. engaged in
H. influenced
J. revived
31. A. NO CHANGE
B. that catered
C. while catering
D. and catered
32. F. NO CHANGE
G. Rivera should wield more political power for his
belief that controversy attracted the working class.
H. Rivera for his controversy attracted belief that the
working class should wield more political power.
J. Rivera attracted controversy for his belief that the
working class should wield more political power.
33. A. NO CHANGE
B. that he was interested in
C. that he focused on
D. DELETE the underlined portion.
34. F. NO CHANGE
G. then
H. as
J. if
35. A. NO CHANGE
B. Many
C. Each
D. Any one
36. F. NO CHANGE
G. history; the
H. history, the
J. history—the
37. A. NO CHANGE
B. if it were
C. was
D. if it was
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
ACT-67C-PRACTICE
11
3
0
3
1
32
32
33
34
35
36
37
Rivera received various prestigious commissions
while he was in the United States. In the 1930s, he was
commissioned by the Ford Motor Company to paint
a twenty-seven-panel fresco in the Detroit Institute of Arts.
The fresco, Detroit Industry, portrays some of the varied
groups that shaped American culture and constituted its
workforce. The central panel on the north wall shows the
manufacture of a 1932 Ford V-8 engine, when the central
panel on the south wall shows the production of this same
cars exterior. Smaller panels depicting workers in a
variety of other Detroit industries. J The fresco is a
dynamic work because, by capturing the energy, humanity,
and collective achievement of the Detroit workers,
celebrates all working men and women. However, Rivera
considered it the greatest achievement of his career.
38. F. NO CHANGE
G. various, prestigious,
H. various, and prestigious
J. various and prestigious,
39. If the underlined phrase were deleted, the sentence
would primarily lose a detail that:
A. repeats information found elsewhere in the
sentence.
B. is necessary for the sentence to be grammatically
complete.
C. provides new and relevant information to the
sentence.
D. is ambiguous and unnecessary to the sentence.
40. F. NO CHANGE
G. since
H. thus
J. and
41. A. NO CHANGE
B. depict
C. depicting some
D. had depicted
42. The writer is thinking of adding the following phrase
to the end of the preceding sentence (changing the
period after industries to a comma):
such as medicine, pharmaceuticals, and
chemicals.
Should the writer make this addition there?
F. Yes, because it offers relevant examples that help
to specify a broad term.
G. Yes, because it helps explain how the panels were
physically constructed.
H. No, because it provides a sampling of industries
rather than a full listing.
J. No, because it digresses from the main point of the
sentence.
43. A. NO CHANGE
B. that,
C. while,
D. that was,
44. F. NO CHANGE
G. Despite this,
H. Regardless,
J. DELETE the underlined portion.
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
ACT-67C-PRACTICE
11
3
8
3
9
40
41
43
44
18
19
PASSAGE IV
After All These Years
[1]
[1] I met Joan, the person who would be my best
friend for the next twenty years, the first morning I played
outside my family’s new California home. [2] I was five
years old. [3] We became inseparable childhood friends,
and we remained close, even though we attended different
high schools and colleges.
[2]
Joan enjoyed jogging and painting cityscapes. I loved
hiking trips and writing. We shared an appreciation of the
outdoors and a passion for our creative work. More
importantly though we enjoyed being together. Through
our history of shared experiences, we formed a rare
understanding of each other.
[3]
[1] Last February, I had to travel to Fairbanks,
Alaska, for my work. [2] Though we had rarely spoken
to each other in fifteen years, when I called Joan to
suggest a meeting, her voice sounded wonderfully familiar.
45. A. NO CHANGE
B. close, yet even
C. close; even
D. close. Even
46. Which of the following alternatives to the underlined
portion would NOT be acceptable?
F. cityscapes, while I
G. cityscapes; I
H. cityscapes. I, on the other hand,
J. cityscapes I
47. A. NO CHANGE
B. important though
C. importantly, though,
D. important, though
48. Which choice would best express the narrators posi-
tive reaction to speaking with Joan and the narrators
fondness for her friend?
F. NO CHANGE
G. she said that she would rearrange her schedule so
that we could meet.
H. she told me that she immediately recognized my
voice.
J. her quick words and the sound of her laugh sur-
prised me.
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
ACT-67C-PRACTICE
11
45
46
47
48
[3] Through my parents, whom were still in touch with
Joan’s father, I learned that Joan was currently living in
Fairbanks. S
[4]
I parked my rental car in downtown Fairbanks,
and to keep the battery from freezing, I plugged the
engine into an electrical outlet in the parking lot
so the battery would stay warm. It was twenty below
zero that afternoon, and the sky shone with a pale gray
light. V I called Joan from a pay phone. She soon met
me on a street corner that was close to her art studio.
[5]
As we walked upstairs to her studio,
we slipped into our familiar habits, talking about
the people in our lives and our work. We talked just
as easily as we had in the past, when we would sit
in the field behind Joan’s house atop the rabbit hutch
and discuss our friends and our hopes for the future.
49. A. NO CHANGE
B. who
C. whose
D. which
50. F. NO CHANGE
G. we
H. they
J. he
51. Which of the following sequences of sentences makes
Paragraph 3 most logical?
A. NO CHANGE
B. 1, 3, 2
C. 2, 1, 3
D. 3, 2, 1
52. F. NO CHANGE
G. located in the downtown area of the city.
H. so the battery would continue to work properly
despite the cold weather.
J. DELETE the underlined portion and end the sen-
tence with a period.
53. Which of the following alternatives to the underlined
portion would NOT be acceptable?
A. was glowing
B. glowed
C. shined
D. shoned
54. If the writer were to delete the preceding sentence, the
essay would primarily lose:
F. an indication of the narrators response to the
weather conditions in Fairbanks.
G. a detailed analysis of why the narrator had to plug
the car engine into an electrical outlet.
H. descriptive details that help set the scene of the
narrators meeting with Joan.
J. unnecessary details that repeat information given
earlier in the paragraph.
55. A. NO CHANGE
B. fell upon
C. dropped by
D. returned with
56. F. NO CHANGE
G. in the field atop the rabbit hutch behind Joans
house
H. atop the rabbit hutch in the field behind Joans
house
J. behind Joans house in the field atop the rabbit
hutch
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
ACT-67C-PRACTICE
11
50
52
5
3
55
56
4
9
20
21
[6]
When I saw Joan’s new paintings, I immediately
remembered her distinct way of emphasizing shadows and
light. I remembered everything about her: how she would
get so absorbed in her work that she’d forget to eat, how
she disliked talking in the morning, how she was firm in
her decisions. The years of separation had not affected the
heart of our connection, our friendship.
57. Which of the following alternatives to the underlined
portion would NOT be acceptable?
A. engrossed in
B. acquired by
C. immersed in
D. engaged in
58. Which of the following alternatives to the underlined
portion would NOT be acceptable?
F. with
G. regarding
H. along
J. about
59. Given that all the choices are true, which one would
best conclude this essay by effectively summarizing its
main idea?
A. NO CHANGE
B. Sadly, I realized that although we might be able to
meet once a year, Joan and I would probably never
again live in the same city.
C. Even though we had followed different interests, I
was glad to know that both Joan and I had been
able to devote time to our creative work.
D. As a result of the time we spent together when we
were very young, I’ll always remember Joan.
60. Upon reviewing the essay and finding that some infor-
mation has been left out, the writer composes the fol-
lowing sentence incorporating that information:
Yet, despite such strong ties, we moved far
apart as adults and lost touch.
This sentence would most logically be placed:
F. after Sentence 2 in Paragraph 1.
G. at the end of Paragraph 2.
H. at the end of Paragraph 4.
J. after the first sentence in Paragraph 6.
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
ACT-67C-PRACTICE
11
Question 60 asks about the preceding passage
as a whole.
57
58
5
9
59
PASSAGE V
Three Stars, Many Stories
Many thousands of years ago, people around the
world began attaching different stories to the stars in the
night sky. The Sun sets gradually the images of a winged
horse, a drinking gourd, a heartbroken hero appear in
lights overhead. In some cases, a pattern of stars may
represent a simple object that has meaning in day-to-day
life. In other cases, the pattern, or constellation, may be
a figure with a different kind of meaning.
Three bright stars that I’ve read about have acquired
significance for many viewers around the globe. In some
agricultural parts of Japan, for instance, these three stars
are commonly referred to as Karasuki and represent a
three-pronged plow. It’s awesome that in other parts of
Japan, the same three stars appear in a constellation
61. A. NO CHANGE
B. stories, which they connected to
C. stories, to which they related to
D. stories because of
62. F. NO CHANGE
G. sets, gradually,
H. sets, and gradually
J. setting gradually
63. A. NO CHANGE
B. pattern, or constellation
C. pattern or constellation,
D. pattern or constellation:
64. Given that all the choices are true, which one ends this
paragraph with the clearest allusion to Orion, as the
constellation is described later in the essay?
F. NO CHANGE
G. that is interesting but hard to see without a
telescope.
H. who plays a dramatic role in a myth that has been
told and retold for centuries.
J. that is also represented in the night sky once the
Sun has set and the stars emerge.
65. Given that all the choices are true, which one offers
visual information about the stars as they appear in
modern times?
A. NO CHANGE
B. have different names in different cultures
C. formed long before any of us were born
D. together roughly form a straight line
66. Which of the following alternatives to the underlined
portion would NOT be acceptable?
F. observers
G. overseers
H. night-sky watchers
J. stargazers
67. Given that all the choices are true, which one provides
a detail that has the most direct connection to the
information that follows in this sentence?
A. NO CHANGE
B. distant
C. populated
D. historic
68. F. NO CHANGE
G. You’ll be amazed to learn that in
H. Consider, if you will, the notion that in
J. In
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
ACT-67C-PRACTICE
11
6
1
62
63
6
4
65
66
67
68
22
23
representing the floor-length sleeve of a woman’s kimono.
In still other parts of Japan, this shining trio appears in the
center of an hourglass-shaped drum, a tsuzumi.
On the other side of the world, the same
three stars has traditionally represented three
zebras to the Namaqua people of South Africa. In
the mythology, of the Tswana people of South Africa,
these same stars represent three pigs.
[1] Orion is the name many Westerners use for a
constellation that contains these three stars. [2] In Greek
mythology, Orion is a mighty hunter. [3] In the night sky,
he carries a bow and arrow and is accompanied by his
loyal dogs, Canis Major and Canis Minor. [4] The three
stars form the brilliant belt around the hunters waist.
[5] In the sky with Orion are the animals he used to hunt
on Earth—from a small rabbit to a huge bull. [6] The
scorpion that, according to myth, killed Orion inhabits
the sky as well, but at such a distance because it can never
sting the hunter again. [7] Even in an age of big-screen
televisions, their is still no show on Earth as big as the
night sky. [8] Stars up there play different roles around
the world, their dazzling careers span thousands of
years. k
69. A. NO CHANGE
B. In Japan’s imagination, this
C. In Japan, this
D. This
70. F. NO CHANGE
G. have
H. could of
J. has been
71. A. NO CHANGE
B. mythology of the Tswana people, of South Africa
C. mythology, of the Tswana people, of South Africa
D. mythology of the Tswana people of South Africa,
72. F. NO CHANGE
G. so when
H. this means
J. that
73. A. NO CHANGE
B. they’re
C. there
D. but there
74. F. NO CHANGE
G. world, and their
H. world, with
J. world,
75. The writer wants to divide the preceding paragraph
into two to create a concluding paragraph that is free
of direct references to a specific cultures view of the
three stars. The best place to begin the new paragraph
would be at the beginning of Sentence:
A. 4.
B. 5.
C. 6.
D. 7.
ACT-67C-PRACTICE
11
END OF TEST 1
STOP! DO NOT TURN THE PAGE UNTIL TOLD TO DO SO.
69
70
71
72
73
74
1. The weekly fee for staying at the Pleasant Lake
Campground is $20 per vehicle and $10 per person.
Last year, weekly fees were paid for v vehicles and
p persons. Which of the following expressions gives
the total amount, in dollars, collected for weekly fees
last year?
A. 20v + 10p
B. 20p + 10v
C. 10(v + p)
D. 30(v + p)
E. 10(v + p) + 20p
2. If r = 9, b = 5, and g =−6, what does (r + b g)(b + g)
equal?
F. 20
G. 08
H. 0 8
J. 19
K. 20
3. A copy machine makes 60 copies per minute. A second
copy machine makes 80 copies per minute. The second
machine starts making copies 2 minutes after the first
machine starts. Both machines stop making copies
8 minutes after the first machine started. Together, the
2 machines made how many copies?
A. 480
B. 600
C. 680
D. 720
E. 960
4. Marlon is bowling in a tournament and has the highest
average after 5 games, with scores of 210, 225, 254,
231, and 280. In order to maintain this exact average,
what must be Marlon’s score for his 6th game?
F. 200
G. 210
H. 231
J. 240
K. 245
5. Joelle earns her regular pay of $7.50 per hour for up to
40 hours of work in a week. For each hour over
40 hours of work in a week, Joelle is paid 1 times her
regular pay. How much does Joelle earn for a week in
which she works 42 hours?
A. $126.00
B. $315.00
C. $322.50
D. $378.00
E. $472.50
6. Which of the following mathematical expressions is
equivalent to the verbal expressionA number, x,
squared is 39 more than the product of 10 and x” ?
F. 2x = 390 + 10x
G. 2x = 39x + 10x
H. 0x
2
= 390 10x
J. 0x
2
= 390 + 00x
10
K. 0x
2
= 390 + 10x
7. If 9(x 9) =−11, then x = ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
70
___
9
2
__
9
11
___
9
20
___
9
92
___
9
1
__
2
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
MATHEMATICS TEST
60 Minutes—60 Questions
ACT-67C-PRACTICE
22
D
IRECTIONS: Solve each problem, choose the correct
answer, and then fill in the corresponding oval on your
answer document.
Do not linger over problems that take too much time.
Solve as many as you can; then return to the others in
the time you have left for this test.
You are permitted to use a calculator on this test. You
may use your calculator for any problems you choose,
b
ut some of the problems may best be done without
using a calculator.
Note: Unless otherwise stated, all of the following should
be assumed.
1. Illustrative figures are NOT necessarily drawn to scale.
2. Geometric figures lie in a plane.
3. The word
line
indicates a straight line.
4. The word
average
indicates arithmetic mean.
24
25
8. Discount tickets to a basketball tournament sell for
$4.00 each. Enrico spent $60.00 on discount tickets,
$37.50 less than if he had bought the tickets at the
regular price. What was the regular ticket price?
F. $02.50
G. $06.40
H. $06.50
J. $07.50
K. $11.00
9. The expression (3x 4y
2
)(3x + 4y
2
) is equivalent to:
A. 9x
2
16y
4
B. 9x
2
08y
4
C. 9x
2
+ 16y
4
D. 6x
2
16y
4
E. 6x
2
08y
4
10. A rectangle has an area of 32 square feet and a
perimeter of 24 feet. What is the shortest of the side
lengths, in feet, of the rectangle?
F. 1
G. 2
H. 3
J. 4
K. 8
11. In ABC, the sum of the measures of A and B is
47°. What is the measure of C ?
A. 047°
B. 086°
C. 094°
D. 133°
E. 143°
12. In the school cafeteria, students choose their lunch
from 3 sandwiches, 3 soups, 4 salads, and 2 drinks.
How many different lunches are possible for a student
who chooses exactly 1 sandwich, 1 soup, 1 salad, and
1drink?
F. 02
G. 04
H. 12
J. 36
K. 72
13. For 2 consecutive integers, the result of adding the
smaller integer and triple the larger integer is 79. What
are the 2 integers?
A. 18, 19
B. 19, 20
C. 20, 21
D. 26, 27
E. 39, 40
14. A function f (x) is defined as f(x) =−8x
2
. What is f(3) ?
F. 072
G. 0 72
H. 0192
J. 576
K. 0576
15. If 3
x
= 54, then which of the following must be true?
A. 1 < x < 2
B. 2 < x < 3
C. 3 < x < 4
D. 4 < x < 5
E. 5 < x
16. What is the least common multiple of 70, 60, and 50 ?
F. 000,060
G. 000,180
H. 000,210
J. 002,100
K. 210,000
17. Hot Shot Electronics is designing a packing box for its
new line of Acoustical Odyssey speakers. The box is a
rectangular prism of length 45 centimeters, width
30 centimeters, and volume 81,000 cubic centimeters.
What is the height, in centimeters, of the box?
A. 75
B. 60
C. 48
D. 27
E. 18
18. Four points, A, B, C, and D, lie on a circle having a
circumference of 15 units. B is 2 units counterclockwise
from A. C is 5 units clockwise from A. D is 7 units
clockwise from A and 8 units counterclockwise from A.
What is the order of the points, starting with A and
going clockwise around the circle?
F. A, B, C, D
G. A, B, D, C
H. A, C, B, D
J. A, C, D, B
K. A, D, C, B
19. A group of cells grows in number as described by the
equation y = 16(2)
t
, where t represents the number of
days and y represents the number of cells. According
to this formula, how many cells will be in the group at
the end of the first 5 days?
A. 0,080
B. 0,160
C. 0,400
D. 0,512
E. 1,280
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
ACT-67C-PRACTICE
22
20. The length of a rectangle is 3 times the length of a
smaller rectangle. The 2 rectangles have the same
width. The area of the smaller rectangle is A square
units. The area of the larger rectangle is kA square
units. Which of the following is the value of k ?
F.
G.
H. 1
J. 3
K. 9
21. (a + 2b + 3c) (4a + 6b 5c) is equivalent to:
A. 4a 8b 2c
B. 4a 4b + 8c
C. 3a + 8b 2c
D. 3a 4b 2c
E. 3a 4b + 8c
22. The dimensions of the right triangle shown below are
given in feet. What is sin,θ ?
F.
G.
H.
J.
K.
23. In a basketball passing drill, 5 basketball players stand
evenly spaced around a circle. The player with the ball
(the passer) passes it to another player (the receiver).
The receiver cannot be the player to the passers
immediate right or left and cannot be the player who
last passed the ball. A designated player begins the
drill as the first passer. This player will be the receiver
for the first time on which pass of the ball?
A. 04th
B. 05th
C. 06th
D. 10th
E. 24th
c
__
a
b
__
a
b
__
c
a
__
c
a
__
b
b
c
a
θ
1
_
_
3
1
__
9
24. Lines p and n lie in the standard (x,y) coordinate plane.
An equation for line p is y = 0.12x + 3,000. The slope
of line n is 0.1 greater than the slope of line p. What is
the slope of line n ?
F. 000.012
G. 000.02
H. 000.22
J. 001.2
K. 300
25. The expression 8x
3
(7x
6
3x
5
) is equivalent to:
A. 56x
9
+ 24x
8
B. 56x
9
24x
8
C. 56x
18
+ 24x
15
D. 56x
18
24x
15
E. 32x
4
26. 3
6 + 8
= ?
F. 42
G. 06
H. 01
J. 06
K. 42
27. In right triangle ACE below, BD
___
is parallel to AE
___
,
and BD
___
is perpendicular to EC
___
at D. The length of AC
___
is 20 feet, the length of BD
___
is 3 feet, and the length of
CD
___
is 4 feet. What is the length, in feet, of AE
___
?
A. 10
B. 12
C. 15
D. 16
E. 17
28. As part of a lesson on motion, students observed a cart
rolling at a constant rate along a straight line. As
shown in the chart below, they recorded the distance,
y feet, of the cart from a reference point at 1-second
intervals from t = 0 seconds to t = 5 seconds.
Which of the following equations represents this data?
F. y = 00t + 14
G. y = 05t + 09
H. y = 05t + 14
J. y = 14t + 05
K. y = 19t
t 012345
y 14 19 24 29 34 39
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
ACT-67C-PRACTICE
22
26
27
29. The inequality 6(x 2) 7(x < 5) is equivalent to
which of the following inequalities?
A. x <23
B. x 07
C. x 17
D. x 37
E. x 47
30. The sides of a square are 3 cm long. One vertex of the
square is at (2,0) on a square coordinate grid marked in
centimeter units. Which of the following points could
also be a vertex of the square?
F. (<4, 0)
G. (0,1)
H. (1,<1)
J. (4,1)
K. (5,0)
31. For FGH, shown below, which of the following is an
expression for y in terms of x ?
A. x 4
B.
C.
D.
E.
32. A bag contains 12 red marbles, 5 yellow marbles, and
15 green marbles. How many additional red marbles
must be added to the 32 marbles already in the bag so
that the probability of randomly drawing a red marble
is ?
F. 13
G. 18
H. 28
J. 32
K. 40
3
__
5
x
2
16
x
2
< 16
x
2
8
x
2
4
x meters
y
m
et
ers
H
F
G
33. What are the quadrants of the standard (x,y) coordinate
plane below that contain points on the graph of the
equation 4x < 2y 8 ?
A. I and III only
B. I, II, and III only
C. I, II, and IV only
D. I, III, and IV only
E. II, III, and IV only
34. The graph of y <5x
2
9 passes through (1,2a) in the
standard (x,y) coordinate plane. What is the value of a ?
F. 2
G. 4
H. 7
J. <1
K. <8
35. Jerome, Kevin, and Seth shared a submarine sandwich.
Jerome ate of the sandwich, Kevin ate of the
sandwich, and Seth ate the rest. What is the ratio of
Jerome’s share to Kevin’s share to Seth’s share?
A. 2:3:6
B. 2:6:3
C. 3:1:2
D. 3:2:1
E. 6:3:2
36. A particular circle in the standard (x,y) coordinate
plane has an equation of (x < 5)
2
y
2
38. What are
the radius of the circle, in coordinate units, and the
coordinates of the center of the circle?
radius center
F. 38 ( 5,0)
G. 0019 ( 5,0)
H. 0038 ( 5,0)
J. 38 (<5,0)
K. 0019 (<5,0)
1
__
2
1
__
3
y
x
II I
III
IV
O
quadrants
of the
standard (x,y)
coordinate
plane
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
ACT-67C-PRACTICE
22
37. The figure below consists of a square and
2 semicircles, with dimensions as shown. What is the
outside perimeter, in centimeters, of the figure?
A. 08 + 08π
B. 16 + 08π
C. 16 + 16π
D. 32 + 08π
E. 32 + 16π
38. In the figure below, points E and F are the midpoints
of sides AD
___
and BC
___
of rectangle ABCD, point G is
the intersection of AF
___
and BE
___
, and point H is the
intersection of CE
___
and DF
___
. The interior of ABCD
except for the interior of EGFH is shaded. What is the
ratio of the area of EGFH to the area of the shaded
region?
F. 1:2
G. 1:3
H. 1:4
J. 1:6
K. Cannot be determined from the given information
39. The coordinates of the endpoints of CD
___
, in the
standard (x,y) coordinate plane, are (4,2) and (14,2).
What is the x-coordinate of the midpoint of CD
___
?
A. 00
B. 02
C. 05
D. 09
E. 10
40. What is the surface area, in square inches, of an 8-inch
cube?
F. 512
G. 384
H. 320
J. 256
K. 192
AE
D
B
F
C
H
G
8 cm
8 cm
41. The equations below are linear equations of a system
where a, b, and c are positive integers.
ay + bx = c
ay bx = c
Which of the following describes the graph of at
least 1 such system of equations in the standard (x,y)
coordinate plane?
I. 2 parallel lines
II. 2 intersecting lines
III. A single line
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I or II only
E. I, II, or III
42. According to the measurements given in the figure
below, which of the following expressions gives the
distance, in miles, from the boat to the dock?
F. 30 tan
, 52°
G. 30 cos,52°
H. 30 sin, 52°
J.
K.
43. The circle graph below shows the distribution of
registered voters, by age, for a community. Registered
voters are randomly selected from this distribution to
be called for jury duty. What are the odds (in the age
range:not in the age range) that the first person called
for jury duty is in the age range of 2535 years?
A. 01:3
B. 07:8
C. 07:43
D. 21:29
E. 42:25
1824
2535
3644
4555
56 and up
Distribution of Registered Voters by Age
8%
42%
14%
25%
11%
30
_______
sin 52°
30
_______
cos 52°
lighthouse
dock
52°
boat
30 miles
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ACT-67C-PRACTICE
22
28
29
The figure below shows the design of a circular stained-
glass panel on display at Hopewells Antique Shop. Seams
separate the pieces of the panel. All red triangular pieces
shown are congruent and have a common vertex with each
adjoining triangular piece. The 2 squares shown are
inscribed in the circle. The diameter of the panel is 2 feet.
44. The design of the stained-glass panel has how many
lines of symmetry in the plane of the panel?
F. 02
G. 04
H. 08
J. 16
K. Infinitely many
45. What is the area of the stained-glass panel, to the
nearest 0.1 square foot?
A. 03.1
B. 04.0
C. 06.2
D. 08.0
E. 12.6
46. Kaya wants to install a new circular stained-glass
window in her living room. The design of the window
will be identical to that of the panel. The diameter of
the new window will be 75% longer than the diameter
of the panel. The new window will be how many feet
in diameter?
F. 1.50
G. 2.50
H. 2.75
J. 3.50
K. 4.00
red piece
orange piece
seam
2 feet
yellow piece
47. In the figure below, AB
___
CD
___
, AE
___
bisects BAC, and
C
E
___
b
isects AC D. If the measure of BAC is 82°,
what is the measure of AEC ?
A. 86°
B. 88°
C. 90°
D. 92°
E. Cannot be determined from the given information
48. In the circle shown below, chords TR
__ _
and QS
___
intersect
at P, which is the center of the circle, and the measure
of PST is 30°. What is the degree measure of minor
arc RS
?
F. 30°
G. 45°
H. 60°
J. 90°
K. Cannot be determined from the given information
49. For what value of a would the following system of
equations have an infinite number of solutions?
2x 0y = 80
6x – 3y = 4a
A. 02
B. 06
C. 08
D. 24
E. 32
30°
T
Q
P
R
S
?
AB
DC
E
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
ACT-67C-PRACTICE
22
Use the following information to answer
questions 4446.
Marcia makes and sells handcrafted picture frames in
2 sizes: small and large. It takes her 2 hours to make a
small frame and 3 hours to make a large frame. The shaded
triangular region shown below is the graph of a system of
inequalities representing weekly constraints Marcia has
in making the frames. For making and selling s small
frames and l large frames, Marcia makes a profit of
30s + 70l dollars. Marcia sells all the frames she makes.
50. The weekly constraint represented by the horizontal
line segment containing (9,2) means that each week
Marcia makes a minimum of:
F. 02 large frames.
G. 09 large frames.
H. 02 small frames.
J. 09 small frames.
K. 11 small frames.
51. For every hour that Marcia spends making frames in
the second week of December each year, she donates
$3 from that week’s profit to a local charity. This year,
Marcia made 4 large frames and 2 small frames in that
week. Which of the following is closest to the percent
of that week’s profit Marcia donated to the charity?
A. 06%
B. 12%
C. 14%
D. 16%
E. 19%
52. What is the maximum profit Marcia can earn from the
picture frames she makes in 1 week?
F. $410
G. $460
H. $540
J. $560
K. $690
l
s
0 2 4 6 8 10
8
6
4
2
0
number of small frames
number of large frames
(0,8)
(9,2)
53. The determinant of a matrix
冤冥
equals ad cb.
What must be the value of x for the matrix
冤冥
to
have a determinant of 16 ?
A. 4
B. 2
C.
D.
E. 4
54. A formula for finding the value, A dollars, of P dollars
invested at i% interest compounded annually for
n years is A = P(1 + 0.01i)
n
. Which of the following is
an expression for P in terms of i, n, and A ?
F. A 0.01i
n
G. A + 0.01i
n
H.
冢冣
n
J.
K.
55. If x and y are real numbers such that x > 1 and y <−1,
then which of the following inequalities must be true?
A. > 1
B.
x
2
>
y
C. 5 >−5
D. x
2
+ 1 > y
2
+ 1
E. x
2
> y
2
x
__
3
y
__
3
x
__
y
A
__________
(1 + 0.01i)
n
A
__________
(1 0.01i)
n
A
_________
1 + 0.01i
8
__
3
8
__
5
x
x
8
x
a
c
b
d
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
ACT-67C-PRACTICE
22
Use the following information to answer
questions 50–52.
30
31
56. Triangles ABC and PQR are shown below. The
given side lengths are in centimeters. The area of
ABC is 30 square centimeters. What is the area of
PQR, in square centimeters?
F. 15
G. 19
H. 25
J. 30
K. 33
57. Triangle ABC is shown in the figure below. The
measure of A is 40°, AB = 18 cm, and AC = 12 cm.
Which of the following is the length, in centimeters, of
BC
___
?
(Note: For a triangle with sides of length a, b, and c
opposite angles A, B, and C, respectively, the law
of sines states ==and the law of
cosines states c
2
= a
2
+ b
2
2ab cos,C.)
A. 12 sin,40°
B. 18 sin,40°
C.
D.
E.
僓僓僓僓僓僓僓僓僓僓僓僓僓僓僓僓僓僓僓僓僓僓
12
2
+ 18
2
2(12)(18) cos 40°
僓僓僓僓僓僓僓
12
2
+ 18
2
僓僓僓僓僓僓僓
18
2
12
2
C
B
40°
A
18 cm
12 cm
sin A
______
a
sin B
______
b
sin C
______
c
70°
A
B
C
x
y
110°
Q
RP
x
y
58. What is the sum of the first 4 terms of the arithmetic
sequence in which the 6th term is 8 and the 10th term
is 13 ?
F. 10.5
G. 14.5
H. 18
J. 21.25
K. 39.5
59. In the equation x
2
+ mx + n = 0, m and n are integers.
The only possible value for x is3. What is the value
of m ?
A. 3
B. –3
C. 6
D. –6
E. 9
60. The solution set of which of the following equations is
the set of real numbers that are 5 units from 3 ?
F.
x + 3
= 5
G.
x 3
= 5
H.
x + 5
= 3
J.
x 5
= 3
K.
x + 5
= 3
ACT-67C-PRACTICE
22
END OF TEST 2
STOP! DO NOT TURN THE PAGE UNTIL TOLD TO DO SO.
DO NOT RETURN TO THE PREVIOUS TEST.
Passage I
The passage begins with a female narrator traveling to her
hometown.
The moon gives some light and I can make out the
contours of the land, see the faint reflection in the lakes
and ponds we pass. Several times I see or imagine I see
glowing eyes staring back at me from a patch of woods
beside the track. When we pass through the tiny towns,
I try to read their signs, catch their names from their
water towers or grain elevators. Occasionally the train
stops at . . . Portage . . . Winona . . . Red Wing.
In my sleeping compartment, watching the night
countryside, so much world rolls by my window. Like a
voyeur I watch the various reunion scenes. I feel these
scenes add up to something, some meaning or lesson
about all life, and I try to put it into words for myself
but find I cant. I finally give up, roll over, go to sleep,
and dream.
But now I am awake, keeping my vigil over the
Midwests pastoral kingdom. Chicago, even Minneapo-
lis seems a long way away. A few hours later, still in
the deep night hours, the train arrives at my stop,
Detroit Lakes, Minnesota, the closest I can get to my
destination.
Suddenly, as I descend the two steps from the
train, the porter hands me into one of the reunion
scenes.Hi, honey, how was the trip? Did you get any
sleep?”A little. Been waiting long?” “Long enough to
beat your dad in two games of cribbage . . . ” Glancing
back at the train windows, I imagine I am looking into
eyes hidden behind mirrored sunglasses.
* * *
I think about progress a lot in the next few days
and about what passes for progress. Nightly we walk
about town, talk marriages and funerals, then sit on the
newly installed benches on Main Street. Together we
assemble from our memories the town as it was twenty
or twenty-five years ago. We remember the little Model
Meat Market and the old Pioneer office. We rebuild the
Landmark Hotel, take down the vinyl fronts from the
grocery store, change the light posts, the awnings, the
names of the current businesses. I put back the old
depot, you the corner funeral home. But soon we are
distracted and leave things half constructed when we
begin to add the people, whats-his-name, the square
dance caller; Ed, the fire chief; and Lydia, the towns
best gossip. On the walk back home, we have begun to
list very specific things, which is the closest we get to
the intangibles: the rental meat lockers, the four-digit
telephone numbers, the free ice cream during dairy
month.
Late at night in my old bed, I listen to the night
sounds of the house and fall asleep counting the
changes that have come to my little hometown: The
park is off limits after dark now, the football field is
fenced in, one-hour photo has come to town along with
a tanning salon and a pizza parlor. The dry goods store
is gone, the dairy, long gone. People lock their houses
now more than once a year when the carnival comes to
town. But all of these changes pale in comparison to
what has replaced the bait shop, the used car lot, and
Mr. Mortons small farm, what has sprung up on High-
way 59 at the edge of town: Las Vegas–style gambling.
* * *
Taking the train back, I decide to put on pajamas
and crawl under the sheets, hoping to trick myself into
a good nights sleep. It seems to work. I have slept
soundly for several hours, but then the dreams start. I
fall in and out of them. But they are not the usual night-
mares. I am in a place where folks know you ten, fif-
teen, twenty years after you’ve left and still see in your
face that of your grandfather or aunt or cousin. I know I
am home and I feel safe.
I have an early breakfast with a would-be journal-
ist and some ski vacationers who want to talk about
election prospects. I merely feign attention. I nod or
laugh on cue, while I try to read upside-down a story in
the would-be journalists newspaper that has caught my
eye. It is about the Russian space station and the cos-
monaut who had been up in orbit during the takeover
attempt and ultimate dissolution of the Soviet Union.
After sixteen long months, they are bringing the cap-
sule back. While the train carries me back to my current
home and away from my former, I keep thinking about
READING TEST
35 Minutes—40 Questions
D
IRECTIONS: There are several passages in this test.
Each passage is accompanied by several questions.
After reading a passage, choose the best answer to each
question and fill in the corresponding oval on your
answer document. You may refer to the passages as
often as necessary.
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
ACT-67C-PRACTICE
33
5
10
15
20
25
30
35
40
45
50
55
60
65
70
75
80
LITERARY NARRATIVE: This passage is adapted from the
short story From Aboard the Night Train by Kimberly M.
Blaeser (©1993 by Kimberly M. Blaeser), which appeared in
Earth Song, Sky Spirit: Short Stories of the Contemporary
Native American Experience
.
32
33
that poor cosmonaut coming back to find his whole
world changed, to find himself a man without a
country—at least without the country he left behind.
I watch the ten oclock national news broadcast. I
see him emerge from the capsule. I see him try to stand
and have his knees buckle. I know they said it was
because he hadnt been able to exercise for such a long
time, but I wonder if his weak-kneed feeling might not
have more to do with what he saw out the window of
the space station and with how the world was happen-
ing around without him.
1. The point of view from which the passage is told is
best described as that of:
A. a young adult riding a train through the small
towns of the Upper Midwest.
B. a young adult preparing to move away from her
hometown.
C. an adult missing the new home she has established.
D. an adult reflecting on the past and pondering the
present.
2. The passage contains recurring references to all of the
following EXCEPT:
F. dreams.
G. reunion scenes.
H. photographs.
J. train trips.
3. The first three paragraphs (lines 121) establish all of
the following about the narrator EXCEPT that she is:
A. passing through a number of towns.
B. originally from Chicago.
C. traveling by train.
D. observant of the landscape.
4. It can reasonably be inferred from the passage that the
narrator thinks her hometown has:
F. improved significantly over the years.
G. made little genuine progress.
H. remained about the same as it was years ago.
J. a chance of being rebuilt as it used to be.
5. Based on the narrators account, all of the following
were part of the past, rather than the present, in her
hometown EXCEPT:
A. four-digit phone numbers.
B. the fenced-in football field.
C. free ice cream during dairy month.
D. the depot.
6. According to the narrator, which of the following busi-
nesses is relatively new to her hometown?
F. The tanning salon
G. The bait shop
H. The dry goods store
J. The used-car lot
7. When the narrator refers to the cosmonaut asa man
without a country (lines 8384), she is most likely
directly referring to the:
A. cosmonauts feeling that he is now a citizen of
space, not the former Soviet Union.
B. cosmonaut’s unrealized expectation that he will be
treated like a hero.
C. political transformation that occurred while the
cosmonaut was in space.
D. sixteen months that the cosmonaut spent in orbit
around Earth.
8. Details in the passage most strongly suggest that the
people meeting the narrator at the train station include:
F. her father.
G. her sister.
H. a neighbor.
J. a journalist.
9. The narrator indicates that the most significant change
to her hometown has been the addition of:
A. square dancing.
B. vinyl storefronts.
C. benches on Main Street.
D. Las Vegas–style gambling.
10. According to the passage, news reports attributed the
cosmonaut’s knees buckling to:
F. his gratitude at being back on Earth.
G. political changes in the world.
H. a lack of exercise.
J. his dismay at what he had seen from the space
station.
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
ACT-67C-PRACTICE
33
85
90
Passage II
SOCIAL SCIENCE: This passage is adapted from the article
Green Music in the Rain Forest by Suzanne Charlé, which
appeared in the Fall 2002
Ford Foundation Report
.
OELA is an acronym based on Portuguese words rather than
the English words used in this article. A
luthier
is a maker of
stringed musical instruments.
The Amazonian Workshop School for Fabrication
of Stringed Instruments (OELA) is a small part of a
larger effort to create a sustainable harvest of the great
Amazon forest and to give employment to the regions
burgeoning population.
“Few people know that the Amazon is one of the
most rapidly urbanizing regions of the world,” observes
José Gabrielpez, a Ford Foundation program officer
in Brazil. The city of Manaus, for example, has grown
in the past decade from 850,000 to 1.5 million. “This
rural-urban migration and the resultant urban shanty-
towns stand as living symbols of failed or nonexistent
rural development policies,” López says. “In many
places, small-scale rural producers have been aban-
doned—devoid of health and education services, credit,
technical assistance and opportunity. What Rubens
Gomes, founder of the workshop school, and his col-
leagues have created in Manaus is hope.”
Gomes knows how to build hope. The school, he
notes proudly, is the first to make stringed instruments
in the Amazon. And it is the first in all of the Americas
to construct instruments exclusively of lumber har-
vested in an environmentally and socially sustainable
manner certified by the Forest Stewardship Council.
Officially, there are 30 million cubic meters of
wood cut in the Amazon annually, Gomes says.
Twenty million of this is wastedsawdust, scraps,
unwanted wood left to rot. And those are the official
numbers. The motive of this school is to transform what
is lost into things of value. Many people could do
thisbut there are no schools teaching carpentry in the
Amazon.”
OELA is meant to help fill the void. To graduate,
each student must make a stringed instrument. All the
guitars are made from certified wood. Gomes explains
that traditionally, Brazilian rosewood and ebony were
used in the construction of guitars. But because of
intense harvesting, these trees are close to extinction.
“I’ve been working for years, trying to find Amazon
woods that are unknown on the market, that are in plen-
tiful supply and that can be used in instrument
making,” Gomes says. He experimented with dozens
before he found types that have the right strength and
sound. (Like other master luthiers, he can tell by touch-
ing the wood whether it will reverberate well.) Once he
identified the woods as possible substitutes, he sent
them to a laboratory to be tested for the right grain and
density. Today, Brosimum rubescens is substituted for
rosewood, Aniba canellila for ebony, and Protium
species for Brazilian mahogany and cedar. These and
some 25 other undervalued tropical hardwoods have
found their way into the luthiers workshop, taking the
pressure off the better-known woods.
For the past year, master luthier Raúl Lage from
the Fernando Ortiz Instrument-Making School of the
Cuban Music Institute has been working with the stu-
dents. There are hurdles, he cautions, a number of them
technical. The high humidity in Manaus means that the
wood will crack in drier climates unless properly
treated. Glue frequently doesnt hold. These problems
are slowly being resolved.
There is also a major obstacle outside the work-
shop: The resistance of buyers to new woods. Thus far,
most of the instruments have been sold to environmen-
talists, some of whomadopt a student by paying his
or her tuition; the studentsproject guitar is then
given to the donor as a gift.
There is also the possibility of contract work from
outside the Amazon. Gomess hopes were raised
recently when the president of a well-known guitar
company based in Nashville, Tennessee, ordered
15 guitars to be auctioned off for the Rainforest
Alliance.
Lage cautions that it will be a long time before any
of the students can command a master luthiers fee.
There is a saying,” Lage says.Anyone can make one
good guitar; it takes a master to make one every time.”
José Lucio do Nascimento Rabelo, director of the
technical school, says,By learning this skill, students
come to look at the forest in a new way; there are ways
other than logging for plywood and firewood to earn a
living, to better the life of the people. One of the
woods being used as a replacement for the precious
rosewood, he notes, is typically used to make charcoal.
Such an appreciation for the forest, says Rabelo,
could have a huge effect on the survival of the rain
forest; some 80 percent of the students come from other
parts of the state of Amazonas, and virtually all of them
return to their home towns. “Some,” he adds, “go on to
become politicians who will have a direct influence on
the future of the forest.”
11. Which of the following assumptions would be most
critical for a reader to accept in order to agree fully
with the authors claims in the passage?
A. Shantytowns in the Amazon need to be relocated if
the forest is to be saved.
B. Learning to make consistently good guitars
requires access to the best materials available.
C. Small-scale rural producers in the Amazon can
help preserve the forest by being innovative.
D. Consumers outside of the Amazon can do little to
help prevent deforestation.
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ACT-67C-PRACTICE
33
5
10
15
20
25
30
35
40
45
50
55
60
65
70
75
80
85
90
34
35
12. In the context of the passage, the statementAll the
guitars are made from certified wood (lines 3435)
most nearly suggests that Gomes’s workshop:
F. uses environmentally sustainable woods in its
guitars.
G. isnt doing enough to stop unnecessary deforesta-
tion in the Amazon.
H. has little chance of pleasing both musicians and
environmentalists.
J. uses only traditional woods in making its guitars.
13. It can most reasonably be inferred from the passage
that regarding OELA, the author feels:
A. skeptical of the workshop’s aims.
B. dismayed by the workshop’s low productivity.
C. supportive of the workshop’s goals.
D. confident that the workshop could be duplicated in
other places.
14. The main purpose of the second paragraph (lines 6–18)
is to:
F. draw attention to the Amazons tremendous popu-
lation growth.
G. explain the necessity for ventures such as
Gomes’s.
H. explain the presence of the Ford Foundation in the
Amazon.
J. justify raising taxes to increase social services in
the Amazon.
15. The main function of the fifth paragraph (lines 3353)
is to:
A. demonstrate the woodworking skills required to be
a master luthier.
B. explore the limitations of science as compared to
intuition.
C. outline the scientific reasons why one type of
wood cannot be replaced by another.
D. show that experiments led to the discovery of good
substitutes for rare woods.
16. The passage notes all of the following as problems that
the fledgling Amazon guitar industry has experienced
EXCEPT that:
F. glue on the guitars sometimes doesn’t hold.
G. the wood used may crack in drier climates.
H. woods usable for guitars have become extinct.
J. buyers resist guitars made with nontraditional
woods.
17. The passage indicates that, as a group, the OELA stu-
dents may impact the survival of the rain forests
because most of them:
A. care deeply enough about music to spend their
lives making musical instruments.
B. will return to their homes and spread their envi-
ronmental knowledge.
C. are willing to endure personal hardships in order
to use their new skills.
D. will have political careers after they return home.
18. In the passage, Gomes indicates that of the wood cut in
the Amazon rain forest each year, approximately how
much wood is wasted?
F. One-fourth
G. One-third
H. One-half
J. Two-thirds
19. The passage states that all of the following are woods
traditionally used for making stringed instruments
EXCEPT:
A. Aniba canellila.
B. rosewood.
C. Brazilian mahogany.
D. ebony.
20. According to the passage, when an OELA student is
“adopted,” he or she receives:
F. tuition.
G. room and board.
H. food and clothing.
J. a musical instrument.
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
ACT-67C-PRACTICE
33
Passage III
HUMANITIES: This passage is adapted from the article “Find-
ing Philosophy” by Colin McGinn (©2003 by Prospect).
Descartes
(line 63) refers to René Descartes (15961650), a
French mathematician, philosopher, and scientist.
I have been an academic philosopher for the past
30 years. I came from an academically disinclined
background in the northeast of England, my relatives
being mainly coalminers and other manual workers. I
was the first in my family to attend university, and
indeed had no thought of it until age 17, when a teacher
mentioned it at school. My father had become a suc-
cessful builder, so we were not materially deprived, and
it was expected that I would become some sort of tech-
nical worker. The idea that I might one day become a
professional philosopher was inconceivable in those
days, to me and everyone else. I was simply not living
in a place where that kind of thing ever happened; it
was far likelierthough still not at all likelythat I
would become a pop star (I played drums in a rock
band).
The paperback British edition of my memoir The
Making of a Philosopher has a photograph on the cover
of a man sitting on a bench, placed in a grey and listless
landscape. He is overlooking the sea on a misty grim
day, and the atmosphere is bleak and melancholy. The
man, hunched up, immobile, coiled almost, has a pen-
sive posture, as if frozen in thought. This picture is
based on a story I tell in the book about sitting on a
bench in Blackpool, aged 18, pondering the metaphysi-
cal question of how objects relate to their properties. Is
an object just the sum total of its properties, a mere
coalescence of general features, or does it somehow lie
behind its properties, supporting them, a solid peg on
which they happen to hang? When I look at an object
do I really see the object itself, or just the appearance
its properties offer to me? I remember the feeling of
fixation that came over me when I thought about these
questionsa kind of floating fascination, a still
perplexity.
When I look back on this period in my late teens, I
recall the harnessing of undirected mental energy by
intellectual pursuits. Up until then, my mental energy
had gone into things like reading Melody Maker, which
contained fairly serious articles about pop musicians; I
always knew the top 20 off by heart, and studied the
articles about drummers intensely, hoping to improve
my own technique. I suspect that this kind of swashing
mental energy is fairly typical of boys that age. School
doesnt seem to connect with it, and it goes off in
search of some object of interest, often trivial, some-
times destructive. In my case, it was philosophy that
seized that energy and converted it into a passion
though one that took several years to form fully. It is a
delicate and fastidious energy that I am speaking of,
despite its power, and it will only be satisfied by certain
employments, which of course vary from person to
person. I had had a similar passion for chemistry when
I was ten, and for butterflies and lizards before that.
How to harness such passions to formal education
remains a great and unresolved problem.
It wasof coursea teacher who tapped into my
formless and fizzing mental energy. Mr Marsh, teacher
of divinity, brimmingly Christian, a man with very
active eyebrows and sharp enunciation, in love with
scholarship (oh, how he relished that word)it was he
who first brought out my inner philosopher. From him I
heard of Descartes, locked up in his room, wondering
whether anything could really be known beyond his
own existence. But what I mainly got from the enthusi-
astic Mr Marsh was the desire to study. His own pas-
sion for study shone through, and he managed to make
it seem, if not glamorous, then at least exhilarating
when done the right way and in the right spirit. Pencils
and stationery were made to seem like shiny tools, and
the pleasure of making ones mark on a blank sheet of
paper hymned. Choosing a good spot to study was
emphasised. Above all, I learned a very valuable
lesson, one that had hitherto escaped me: make notes.
Thinking and writing should be indissoluble activities,
the hand ministering to the thought, the thought shaped
by the hand. Today, if I find myself without pen and
paper and thoughts start to arrive, my fingers begin to
twitch and I long for those implements of cogitation.
With such rudimentary tools you can perform the
miracle of turning an invisible thought into a concrete
mark, bringing the ethereal interior into the public
external world, refining it into something precious and
permanent. The physical pleasure of writing, which I
find survives in the use of a computer, is something
worth dwelling on in matters of education.
21. The passage is best described as being told from the
point of view of a philosopher who is:
A. discussing metaphysical questions that have trou-
bled philosophers since the time of Descartes.
B. presenting in chronological order the key events in
his thirty-year professional career.
C. reflecting on his own early, developing interest in
philosophy and in scholarship generally.
D. advising professional educators on how to get
more students to study philosophy.
22. Based on the passage, which of the following was most
likely the first to engage the authors passionate
interest?
F. Drumming
G. Philosophy
H. Chemistry
J. Butterflies
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
ACT-67C-PRACTICE
33
5
10
15
20
25
30
35
40
45
50
55
60
65
70
75
80
85
36
37
23. The main purpose of the last paragraph is to:
A. reveal the enduring impact of Mr. Marshs lessons
on the author.
B. acknowledge that the author came to doubt some
of Mr. Marsh’s teachings.
C. describe a typical class as taught by Mr. Marsh.
D. present a biographical sketch of Mr. Marsh.
24. The passage indicates that the man in the book-cover
photograph represents:
F. Descartes, wondering what could be known.
G. Mr. Marsh, deep in scholarly thought.
H. the author at age seventeen, thinking about
enrolling in college.
J. the author at age eighteen, contemplating a philo-
sophical issue.
25. The author mentions Melody Maker, the top 20, and
articles about musicians primarily to suggest that his:
A. early interest in music has remained with him to
the present.
B. time spent playing music should instead have been
spent reading.
C. fascination with pop music and musicians gave
focus to his life for a time.
D. commitment to study enabled him to perfect his
drumming technique.
26. In the third paragraph (lines 36–56), the author most
nearly characterizes the energy he refers to as:
F. potent yet difficult to channel in a constructive
way.
G. powerful and typically leading to destructive
results.
H. delicate and inevitably wasted in trivial
undertakings.
J. gentle yet capable of uniting people who have dif-
ferent interests.
27. Viewed in the context of the passage, the statement in
lines 55–56 is most likely intended to suggest that:
A. schools should require students to take philosophy
courses.
B. students can become passionate when learning
about science in school.
C. schools need to keep searching for ways to tap into
students’ deeply held interests.
D. students should resolve to take school courses that
interest them.
28. The author calls pen and paperrudimentary tools
(line 80) as part of his argument that:
F. the use of computers has made the use of pen and
paper obsolete.
G. students should become skilled with pen and paper
before moving on to better tools.
H. while writing with pen and paper can be pleasant,
it can also be physically painful.
J. although seemingly simple, pen and paper allow
people to perform great feats.
29. In the context of the passage, lines 1723 are best
described as presenting images of:
A. gloom, tension, and fascination.
B. anger, bitterness, and betrayal.
C. stillness, peacefulness, and relaxation.
D. frustration, surprise, and satisfaction.
30. Which of the following does NOT reasonably describe
the transition the author presents in lines 80–84?
F. Precious to commonplace
G. Fleeting to permanent
H. Invisible to visible
J. Private to public
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
ACT-67C-PRACTICE
33
Passage IV
NATURAL SCIENCE: This passage is adapted from
Consider
the Eel
by Richard Schweid (©2002 by Richard Schweid).
The known facts, as they are pretty much univer-
sally accepted among biologists and naturalists today,
are that all the eels in all the rivers of eastern North
America and the Caribbean countries, and all the eels in
all the rivers of eastern and western Europe, are born in
the same area of the Sargasso Sea, a huge area within
the Atlantic Ocean, between Bermuda and the Azores,
the surface of which is frequently covered with sargas-
sum seaweed. In fact, the wordSargasso comes from
the Portuguese sargaço, meaning seaweed. The sea is
about 2,000 miles long and 1,000 miles wide, set off
from the surrounding waters of the Atlantic by strong
currents. It includes the area known in popular legend
as the Bermuda Triangle.
Eels hatch in the Sargasso as larvae and are carried
by the ocean currents to either Europe or the United
States, a journey that can cover thousands of miles and
take years. Where they end up depends on which of two
similar species they belong to. Those that are Anguilla
anguilla invariably wind up in European rivers, and
those that enter North American rivers always belong to
the species Anguilla rostrata. The first person to find
eel larvae in the Sargasso Sea was Danish researcher
Johannes Schmidt, who published his findings in 1924,
after spending 18 years hauling nets in search of eels.
The larvae of both species are shaped like small
oval leaves and are called leptocephali. Each lepto-
cephalus begins to assume the form of a tiny eel, called
an elver or glass eel, when it gets close to the coasts of
either Europe or the Americas. By the time it reaches
brackish water, where fresh and salt water mix, it is thin
and transparent, hardly bigger than a hair, with a pair of
eyes like black dots at one end.
From the estuaries and mouths of rivers, the tiny
eels frequently continue upstream, particularly the
females, who sometimes go great distances inland.
American eels have been found as far up the Missis-
sippi River system as the rivers of Iowa. They keep
going upriver until something tells them they’ve
reached home, and then they stop. Whatever it is that
signals to eels that they are home is definitive—they
settle in and live there for as long as 20 years, growing
up to a yard long before beginning their journey back to
the Sargasso Sea. Scientists determine an eels age
using a microscope to read the growth rings of its
otolith—a small, hard calcium deposit at the base of its
skull.
In preparation for the return journey to the Sar-
gasso, sexually mature female eels feed voraciously and
change color from the muddy-yellow/green of adult
eels, often called yellow eels, to a darker green on top
and snow-white on their bellies. At this stage, they are
called silver eels. They swim downriver in the fall, on
the first leg of their journey to the Sargasso, and when
they reach estuarine waters, they rest, completing their
final transformation as silver eels. They will have eaten
heavily and will be about 28 percent body fat. They
will never eat again, and their digestive systems will
atrophy. Their pupils will expand and turn blue. They
will need a new kind of sight adapted to the depths of
the sea, where there is little light. They will also have
to go through a drastic adjustment, via osmosis, in their
blood chemistry, to prepare for the tremendous change
in water pressure, going from some 14 pounds of fresh-
water pressure per inch of their bodies to over a ton of
ocean pressure per inch. Once they are back in the Sar-
gasso Sea, the females produce eggs for the males to
fertilize, and then the adults die.
At least that is what todays marine biologists and
naturalists tell us, although adult eels have never been
seen swimming, reproducing, or dying in the Sargasso.
In fact, live adult eels have never been seen there at all.
The only two adult eels ever reported in the Sargasso
Sea were dead, found in the stomachs of other fish. The
eels migration back to its birthplace and what it actu-
ally does when it gets there are assumed to take place
far below the water’s surface and, as of the year 2001,
were still completely unobserved. However, the eel
larvaethe leptocephali that Schmidt found in the Sar-
gassowere so small that it was certain they had been
born recently, and nearby. Such small larvae have never
been seen elsewhere, and while eels have never been
observed reproducing in the Sargasso, they have never
been seen doing so anyplace else either. Scientists
believe the larvae hatch out of eggs at a depth of
100300 yards and rise slowly toward the light at the
sea’s surface.
31. One of the main ideas established by the passage is
that:
A. researchers have nearly exhausted their resources
after spending decades investigating the Sargasso
Sea.
B. significant gaps still remain in researchers under-
standing of the life cycle of eels.
C. eels live their entire lives in the Sargasso Sea, but
no one has ever seen them there.
D. female eels turn into silver eels toward the end of
their lives.
32. Learning about which of the following had the largest
impact on scientists current understanding of where
eels breed?
F. The direction in which ocean currents carry eel
larvae
G. The relationship of the yellow eel stage to the
silver eel stage
H. Schmidts discovery of eel larvae in the Sargasso
Sea
J. The adult eels found in the stomachs of other fish
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ACT-67C-PRACTICE
33
5
10
15
20
25
30
35
40
45
50
55
60
65
70
75
80
85
38
39
33. The main purpose of the fourth paragraph (lines
3447) is to describe the:
A. eels’ transition from freshwater to the ocean.
B. method of determining the age of eels.
C. complexity of the Mississippi River system.
D. river stage of the eel life cycle.
34. The passage states that the Sargasso Sea is set off from
the rest of the Atlantic Ocean by:
F. the Azores.
G. several Caribbean countries.
H. powerful winds.
J. strong currents.
35. The passage notes that the Sargasso Sea includes:
A. the eastern North American shore.
B. the Bermuda Triangle.
C. certain coastal estuaries.
D. the mouth of the Mississippi River.
36. As it is used in line 13, the word popular most nearly
means:
F. well liked.
G. commonly known.
H. scientifically accepted.
J. most admired.
37. As it is used in line 45, the word re ad most nearly
means to:
A. learn from print.
B. observe.
C. think about.
D. predict.
38. The passage indicates that female eels pupils expand
and turn blue because the eels:
F. must adapt to see in an environment with much
less light than they are used to.
G. are about to undergo a change in their blood
chemistry.
H. no longer need to be able to recognize food
sources since they have stopped eating.
J. need to be able to recognize the male eels that will
fertilize their eggs.
39. The passage most strongly emphasizes that the process
of osmosis is necessary for the eels’ transition from:
A. shallower to deeper water.
B. feeding to nonfeeding.
C. immature to mature form.
D. elver to yellow eel.
40. According to the passage, which of the following char-
acteristics of the eel larvae found by Schmidt provided
the best evidence that the larvae were hatched in the
Sargasso Sea?
F. Size
G. Shape
H. Color
J. Species
ACT-67C-PRACTICE
33
END OF TEST 3
STOP! DO NOT TURN THE PAGE UNTIL TOLD TO DO SO.
DO NOT RETURN TO A PREVIOUS TEST.
Passage I
Finch beak depth (see Figure 1) is an inheritable trait
(it can be passed from parents to offspring).
Figure 1
Researchers studied the beak depth of 2 species of
finches, Geospiza fortis and Geospiza fuliginosa. Both
species live on Island A. G. fortis alone lives on Island B,
and G. fuliginosa alone lives on Island C. For both species,
the primary food is seeds. Birds with shallower beaks can
efficiently crush and eat only small seeds. Birds with
deeper beaks can crush and eat both large and small seeds,
but they prefer small seeds.
Study 1
Researchers captured 100 G. fortis finches and
100 G. fuliginosa finches on Island A. They tagged each
bird, measured its beak depth, and released it. Then they
calculated the percent of birds having each of the beak
depths that had been measured. The researchers followed
the same procedures with 100 G. fortis finches from
Island B and 100 G. fuliginosa finches from Island C. The
results of this study are shown in Figure 2.
Figure 2
Study 2
After completing Study 1, the researchers returned to
Island B each of the next 10 years, from 1976 to 1985.
During each visit, the researchers captured at least
50 G. fortis finches and measured their beak depths. Then
percent of captured
finches from Island C
1716151413121110987
50
40
30
20
10
0
beak depth (mm)
G. fuliginosa
percent of captured
finches from Island A
1716151413121110987
50
40
30
20
10
0
G. fuliginosa
G. fortis
percent of captured
finches from Island B
1716151413121110987
50
40
30
20
10
0
G. fortis
beak depth
SCIENCE TEST
35 Minutes—40 Questions
D
IRECTIONS: There are several passages in this test.
Each passage is followed by several questions. After
reading a passage, choose the best answer to each
question and fill in the corresponding oval on your
answer document. You may refer to the passages as
often as necessary.
You are NOT permitted to use a calculator on this test.
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
ACT-67C-PRACTICE
44
40
41
they calculated the average G. fortis beak depth for each of
the 10 years. The researchers noted that, during the 10-year
period, 3 years were exceptionally dry, and 1 year was very
wet (see Figure 3). Small seeds are abundant during wet
years. During dry years, all seeds are less abundant, and
the average size of the available seeds is larger.
Figure 3
Figures adapted from Neil A. Campbell, Jane B. Reece, and
Lawrence G. Mitchell,
Biology
, 5th ed. ©1999 by Benjamin/
Cummings.
1. Based on the results of Study 1, the highest percent of
finches on Island B and Island C had a beak depth of:
Island B Island C
A. 8 mm 8 mm
B. 9 mm 12 mm
C. 10 mm 8 mm
D. 10 mm 10 mm
2. During which of the following years were small seeds
likely most abundant on Island B ?
F. 1977
G. 1980
H. 1982
J. 1984
3. Study 1 differed from Study 2 in which of the follow-
ing ways?
A. G. fortis finches were captured during Study 1 but
not during Study 2.
B. G. fuliginosa finches were captured during Study 1
but not during Study 2.
C. The beak depth of captured birds was measured
during Study 1 but not during Study 2.
D. The beak depth of captured birds was measured
during Study 2 but not during Study 1.
4. It is most likely that the researchers tagged the birds
that they captured during Study 1 to:
F. determine how beak depth was affected by rainfall
on Island A.
G. determine the average age of each finch population.
H. ensure that the beak depth of each finch was mea-
sured multiple times during Study 1.
J. ensure that the beak depth of each finch was mea-
sured only once during Study 1.
5. Based on the results of Study 2, would a finch with a
beak depth of 9.4 mm or a finch with a beak depth of
9.9 mm more likely have had a greater chance of sur-
vival during 1977 ?
A. A finch with a beak depth of 9.4 mm, because, on
average, the size of available seeds is larger during
dry years.
B. A finch with a beak depth of 9.4 mm, because, on
average, the size of available seeds is smaller
during dry years.
C. A finch with a beak depth of 9.9 mm, because, on
average, the size of available seeds is larger during
dry years.
D. A finch with a beak depth of 9.9 mm, because, on
average, the size of available seeds is smaller
during dry years.
6. A researcher hypothesized that there would be more
variation in the beak depths measured for the G. fortis
finches when they were forced to compete with
another finch species for seeds. Do the results of
Study 1 support this hypothesis?
F. Yes; the range of beak depths measured for
G. fortis finches was greater on Island A than on
Island B.
G. Yes; the range of beak depths measured for
G. fortis finches was greater on Island B than on
Island A.
H. No; the range of beak depths measured for
G. fortis finches was greater on Island A than on
Island B.
J. No; the range of beak depths measured for
G. fortis finches was greater on Island B than on
Island A.
average beak depth (mm)
9.9
9.8
9.7
9.6
9.5
9.4
9.3
9.2
1976
1977
1
978
1979
1980
1981
1982
1983
1984
1985
year
dry dry dry
wet
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
ACT-67C-PRACTICE
44
Passage II
Substances in the atmosphere, such as Cu
2+
, Zn
2+
, Cl
,
and SO
4
2
ions, are carried down to Earths surface by
precipitation. This process is known as wet deposition.
Cu
2+
and Zn
2+
ions are put into the atmosphere by high-
temperature combustion processes. The presence of Cl
and SO
4
2
ions in the atmosphere can be attributed to road-
salt dust and electrical power generation, respectively.
Study 1
A rain gauge, placed on the roof of a 1-story building,
at a specific urban site was used to collect precipitation
over a 12-month period. At the same time each evening,
the amount of precipitation in the rain gauge was recorded,
after which the collected precipitation was emptied from
the gauge and stored. (Assume no measurable evaporation
occurred during any day.) Figure 1 shows the measured
monthly precipitation in centimeters.
Figure 1
At the end of each month, all the samples collected
during that month were mixed, and some of this combined
sample was analyzed for the concentrations of Cu
2+
and
Zn
2+
ions. Using these data, the monthly wet deposition of
each substance, in micrograms (µ g) per meter
2
, was calcu-
lated (see Figure 2).
Figure 2
Study 2
Another portion of the combined sample for each
month was analyzed for the concentrations of Cl
and
SO
4
2
ions. Using these data, the monthly wet deposition
of each substance, in milliequivalents (meq) per m
2
, was
calculated (see Figure 3).
Figure 3
Study 3
The annual wet deposition of Cu
2+
and of Zn
2+
for the
12-month period, in µg/m
2
, was calculated for the urban
site (the source of the Cu
2+
and Zn
2+
) and also for Rural
Sites 1 and 2, located 50 km and 100 km east, respectively,
of the urban site (see Figure 4).
Figure 4
Figures adapted from Kathryn Conko et al.,Atmospheric Wet
Deposition of Trace Elements to a Suburban Environment, Reston,
Virginia, USA.” ©2004 by Elsevier, Ltd.
Zn
2+
Cu
2+
4,000
3,000
2,000
1,000
800
600
400
200
0
annual wet deposition (µg/m
2
)
urban site
Rural Site 1
Rural Site 2
Key
ion
JFMAMJJASOND
month
10
8
6
4
2
0
10
8
6
4
2
0
2.0
1.5
1.0
0.5
0
2.0
1.5
1.0
0.5
0
monthly wet
deposition (meq/m
2
)
monthly wet
deposition (meq/m
2
)
Cl
SO
4
2−
month
J
800
600
400
200
0
FMAM J J ASOND
800
600
400
200
0
150
100
50
0
150
100
50
0
monthly wet
deposition (µg/m
2
)
monthly wet
deposition (µg/m
2
)
Cu
2+
Zn
2+
J
20
15
10
5
0
FM
A
M
J
JASOND
month
monthly
precipitation (cm)
20
15
10
5
0
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
ACT-67C-PRACTICE
44
42
43
7. According to Figure 1, over the 12-month period, the
monthly precipitation at the urban site was maximum
in February and minimum in July. According to
Figures 2 and 3, the wet deposition of which ion was
also maximum in February and minimum in July?
A. Cu
2
+
B. Zn
2
+
C. Cl
D. SO
4
2
8. Based on the results of Study 1, the average monthly
wet deposition for Cu
2+
over the 12-month period was:
F. less than 50 µg/m
2
.
G. between 50 µg/m
2
and 75 µg/m
2
.
H. between 75 µg/m
2
and 100 µg/m
2
.
J. greater than 100 µ g/m
2
.
9. Is the statement “The values for Cl
wet deposition
were greater during the winter and early spring when
road salt is typically applied supported by the results
of Study 2 ?
A. Yes, because Cl
wet deposition values were, on
average, greater from November to April than they
were from May to October.
B. Yes, because Cl
wet deposition values were, on
average, less from November to April than they
were from May to October.
C. No, because Cl
wet deposition values were, on
average, greater from November to April than they
were from May to October.
D. No, because Cl
wet deposition values were, on
average, less from November to April than they
were from May to October.
10. Suppose there had been no precipitation during
1 entire month of the 12-month period. Based on the
information provided, during that month there would
have been:
F. significant wet deposition of all 4 substances.
G. significant wet deposition of Cu
2
+
and Zn
2
+
, but no
wet deposition of Cl
and SO
4
2
.
H. no wet deposition of any of the 4 substances.
J. no wet deposition of Cu
2
+
and Zn
2
+
, but significant
wet deposition of Cl
and SO
4
2
.
11. According to Study 3, as distance from the urban site
increased, the annual wet deposition:
A. increased for both Cu
2+
and Zn
2+
.
B. increased for Cu
2+
but decreased for Zn
2+
.
C. decreased for both Cu
2
+
and Zn
2
+
.
D. remained the same for both Cu
2
+
and Zn
2
+
.
12. Which of the following variables was kept constant in
Study 2 ?
F. Site
G. Monthly rainfall
H. Wet deposition of Zn
2+
J. Wet deposition of Cl
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
ACT-67C-PRACTICE
44
Passage III
Cloud cover is the percent of Earths surface covered
by clouds. Cloud cover may increase because of an
increase in the cosmic ray flux (number of high-energy par-
ticles from space reaching Earth per m
2
per hour). Table 1
shows how Earths cover of low clouds (0 km to 3.2 km
altitude) varies with the cosmic ray flux. Figures 13 show
the relative cosmic ray flux, RCRF (the percent below the
flux measured on October 1, 1965), and the monthly aver-
age cover of high clouds (6.0 km to 16.0 km altitude),
middle clouds (3.2 km to 6.0 km altitude), and low clouds,
respectively, from January 1980 to January 1995.
Table 1 adapted from E. Palle Bagó and C. J. Butler, “The Influence
of Cosmic Rays on Terrestrial Clouds and Global Warming.” ©2000
by Institute of Physics Publications, Ltd.
Figure 1
Figure 2
Figure 3
Figures adapted from Nigel Marsh and Henrik Svensmark,Low
Cloud Properties Influenced by Cosmic Rays. ©2000 by The
American Physical Society.
Jan.
1980
Jan.
1985
Jan.
1990
Jan.
1995
RCRF (%)
27.5
28.0
28.5
29.0
29.5
year
monthly average
cover of low clouds (%)
monthly average cover of clouds
RCRF
Key
0
2
4
6
8
Jan.
1980
Jan.
1985
Jan.
1990
Jan.
1995
RCRF (%)
19.0
19.5
20.0
20.5
21.0
year
monthly average
cover of middle clouds (%)
m
onthly average cover of clouds
RCRF
Key
0
2
4
6
8
Jan.
1980
Jan.
1985
Jan.
1990
Jan.
1995
RCRF (%)
monthly average
cover of high clouds (%)
12.5
13.0
13.5
14.0
14.5
year
monthly average cover of clouds
RCRF
Key
0
2
4
6
8
Table 1
Cosmic ray flux
(particles/m
2
/hr)
Cover of low clouds
(%)
340,000 27.8
360,000 28.1
380,000 28.4
400,000 28.7
420,000 29.0
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
ACT-67C-PRACTICE
44
44
45
13. The percent of Earths surface covered by high clouds
in January 1987 was closest to which of the following?
A. 13.0%
B. 13.5%
C. 14.0%
D. 14.5%
14. Based on Table 1, a cosmic ray flux of 440,000 parti-
cles/m
2
/hr would correspond to a cover of low clouds
that is closest to which of the following?
F. 28.7%
G. 29.0%
H. 29.3%
J. 29.6%
15. Is the statementThe monthly average cover of low
clouds is more directly correlated with cosmic ray flux
than is the monthly average cover of high clouds” con-
sistent with Figures 1 and 3 ?
A. Yes, because the plot for the monthly average
cover of low clouds more closely parallels the plot
for RCRF.
B. Yes, because the plot for the monthly average
cover of high clouds more closely parallels the
plot for RCRF.
C. No, because the plot for the monthly average cover
of low clouds more closely parallels the plot for
RCRF.
D. No, because the plot for the monthly average cover
of high clouds more closely parallels the plot for
RCRF.
16. Which of the following figures best represents the
monthly average cover of high, middle, and low clouds
in January 1992 ?
17. High clouds are composed primarily of ice crystals,
whereas low clouds are composed primarily of water
droplets. This difference is most likely because the
average air temperature at altitudes from:
A. 0 km to 3.2 km is at or below 0°C, whereas the
average air temperature at altitudes from 3.2 km to
6.0 km is above 0°C.
B. 0 km to 3.2 km is at or below 0°C, whereas the
average air temperature at altitudes from 6.0 km to
16.0 km is above 0°C.
C. 0 km to 3.2 km is aboveC, whereas the average
air temperature at altitudes from 3.2 km to 6.0 km
is at or below 0°C.
D. 0 km to 3.2 km is above 0°C, whereas the average
air temperature at altitudes from 6.0 km to 16.0 km
is at or below 0°C.
m
id
d
le
c
lo
u
d
s
cloud cover
h
ig
h
c
lo
u
d
s
lo
w c
lo
u
d
s
middle clouds
cloud cover
high clouds
low clouds
m
id
d
le
clouds
cloud cover
h
ig
h
c
lo
u
d
s
low clouds
middle c
lo
u
d
s
cloud cover
high clouds
lo
w c
lo
u
d
s
F
.
G.
H
.
J.
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
ACT-67C-PRACTICE
44
Passage IV
Acid-base titration is a technique in which precise
volumes of a titrant (an acid or base solution) are added
incrementally to a known volume of a sample solution (a
base or acid solution, respectively). This process can be
monitored by adding an acid-base indicator (a substance
that changes color over a certain pH range) to the sample
solution or by measuring the sample solutions conductiv-
ity. Conductivity (measured in kilosiemens per centimeter,
kS/cm) is a measure of a substances ability to conduct
electricity.
Two titration experiments were done at 25°C using a
0.10 M sodium hydroxide (NaOH) solution and either a
0.0010 M hydrochloric acid (HCl) solution or a 0.0010 M
acetic acid solution (where M is moles of acid or base per
liter of solution). All solutions were aqueous. An acid-base
indicator solution of nitrazine yellow was also used.
Nitrazine yellow is yellow if the pH is less than 6.0 or blue
if the pH is greater than 7.0.
Experiment 1
A drop of nitrazine yellow solution was added to a
flask containing 100.0 mL of the HCl solution. A probe
that measures conductivity was placed in the solution. The
NaOH solution was slowly added to the HCl solution in
small increments. After each addition, the HCl solution
was stirred and then the solutions color and conductivity
were recorded (see Figure 1).
Figure 1
Experiment 2
Experiment 1 was repeated, except that the acetic acid
solution was used instead of the HCl solution (see Figure 2).
Figure 2
Figures adapted from J. West Loveland,Conductance and Oscil-
lometry, in Gary D. Christian and James E. OReilly, eds.,
Instru-
mental Analysis
, 2nd ed. ©1986 by Allyn and Bacon, Inc.
18. In Experiment 1, the sample solution was yellow at
which of the following values for the volume of titrant
added?
F. 0.80 mL
G. 1.20 mL
H. 1.60 mL
J. 2.00 mL
19. In Experiment 2, the sample solution was neutral at
which of the following values for the volume of titrant
added?
A. 0.50 mL
B. 1.00 mL
C. 1.50 mL
D. 2.00 mL
volume of titrant added (mL)
2.001.501.000.500.00
3.5
3.0
2.5
2.0
1.5
1.0
0.5
0.0
c
onduc
tivity (kS/c
m)
color was green as
the volume of titrant
added increased from
0.95 mL to 1.00 mL
yellow
green
blue
Key
volume of titrant added (mL)
conductivity (kS/cm)
yellow
blue
Key
2.001.50
4.5
4.0
3.5
3.0
2.5
2.0
1.5
1.0
1.000.500.00
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
ACT-67C-PRACTICE
44
46
47
20. In Experiment 1, if 2.30 mL of titrant had been added
to the sample solution, the conductivity would most
likely have been:
F. less than 0.80 kS/cm.
G. between 0.80 kS/cm and 2.30 kS/cm.
H. between 2.30 kS/cm and 3.80 kS/cm.
J. greater than 3.80 kS/cm.
21. In Experiment 2, which solution was the titrant and
which solution was the sample solution?
titrant sample solution
A. acetic acid NaOH
B. HCl NaOH
C. NaOH acetic acid
D. NaOH HCl
22. In Experiments 1 and 2, the probe that was placed in
the sample solution most likely did which of the
following?
F. Cooled the solution to its freezing point
G. Heated the solution to its boiling point
H. Detected the concentration of nitrazine yellow in
the solution
J. Passed an electrical current through a portion of
the solution
23. A chemist claimed that in Experiment 2, the pH of the
sample solution was greater at a value of 0.2 mL of
titrant added than at a value of 1.8 mL of titrant added.
Do the results of Experiment 2 support this claim?
A. No; at a value of 0.2 mL of titrant added, the
sample solution was yellow, and at a value of
1.8 mL of titrant added, the sample solution was
blue.
B. No; at a value of 0.2 mL of titrant added, the
sample solution was blue, and at a value of 1.8 mL
of titrant added, the sample solution was yellow.
C. Yes; at a value of 0.2 mL of titrant added, the
sample solution was yellow, and at a value of
1.8 mL of titrant added, the sample solution was
blue.
D. Yes; at a value of 0.2 mL of titrant added, the
sample solution was blue, and at a value of 1.8 mL
of titrant added, the sample solution was yellow.
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
ACT-67C-PRACTICE
44
Passage V
An astronomy class is given the following facts about
stellar evolution.
1. A stars evolution can be divided into 3 stages: pre-
main sequence (pre-MS), main sequence (MS), and
post-main sequence (post-MS).
2. Gravity causes part of a cloud of gas and dust to
collapse and heat up, creating a pre-MS star. The
stars hot dust and gas emit its energy.
3. A pre-MS star becomes an MS star when the star
produces the majority of its energy by fusing
hydrogen nuclei (protons) at its center to make
helium nuclei.
4. An MS star becomes a post-MS star when the star
expands in volume and produces the majority of its
energy by fusing hydrogen to make helium in a
shell surrounding its center.
5. The more massive a star, the more rapidly the star
passes through each of the 3 stages of its evolution.
Two students discuss the evolution of the Algol
systemAlgol A, a 3.6-solar-mass MS star; Algol B, a
0.8-solar-mass post-MS star; and Algol C, a 1.7-solar-mass
MS star. (One solar mass = the Suns mass.) The 3 stars
orbit a mutual center of mass, with Algol A and Algol B
much closer to each other and to the center of mass than to
Algol C.
Student 1
The 3 stars of the Algol system formed at the same
time from the same cloud of gas and dust. Algol B, origi-
nally the most massive of the 3 stars, became a post-MS
star and expanded in volume while Algol A remained an
MS star. Because the matter in the outer parts of Algol B
was more strongly attracted to Algol A than to the matter
in the inner parts of Algol B, this matter flowed from
Algol B to Algol A, and, over time, Algol A became more
massive than Algol B.
Student 2
Algol B was not part of the original Algol system
(Algol A and Algol C). Algol B and the original Algol
system formed in different clouds of gas and dust at differ-
ent times and moved in 2 different but intersecting orbits
around the center of the galaxy. During a particular orbit,
Algol B encountered the original Algol system at the inter-
section of the 2 orbits and became part of the Algol system.
Algol B became a post-MS star while Algol A and
Algol C remained MS stars. Algol B never lost mass to
Algol A. Algol B was always less massive than Algol A.
24. Based on Student 2s discussion, Algol B is part of the
present Algol system because of which of the follow-
ing forces exerted on Algol B by the original Algol
system?
F. Electric force
G. Magnetic force
H. Gravitational force
J. Nuclear force
25. Based on Student 1s discussion and Fact 4, while
matter flowed between Algol A and Algol B, Algol B
produced the majority of its energy by fusing:
A. hydrogen nuclei to make helium nuclei at its
center.
B. hydrogen nuclei to make helium nuclei in a shell
surrounding its center.
C. helium nuclei to make hydrogen nuclei at its
center.
D. helium nuclei to make hydrogen nuclei in a shell
surrounding its center.
26. Suppose that chemical composition is uniform among
stars formed from the same cloud of gas and dust, but
that chemical composition varies among stars formed
from different clouds of gas and dust. Student 2 would
most likely agree with which of the following state-
ments comparing the chemical compositions of the
stars in the present-day Algol system at the time they
formed?
F. Algol A and Algol B had the most similar
compositions.
G. Algol A and Algol C had the most similar
compositions.
H. Algol B and Algol C had the most similar
compositions.
J. Algol A, Algol B, and Algol C had the same
composition.
27. If the mass of the Sun is 2.0
×
10
30
kg, what is the mass
of Algol C ?
A. 1.6
×
10
30
kg
B. 2.0
×
10
30
kg
C. 3.4
×
10
30
kg
D. 7.2
×
10
30
kg
28. Which of the following statements best explains why
the reaction described in Fact 3 requires a high temper-
ature and pressure?
F. All protons are positively charged, and like
charges attract each other.
G. All protons are positively charged, and like
charges repel each other.
H. All electrons are negatively charged, and like
charges attract each other.
J. All electrons are negatively charged, and like
charges repel each other.
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
ACT-67C-PRACTICE
44
48
49
29. Based on Fact 5 and Student 1s discussion, which of
the 3 stars in the Algol system, if any, was most likely
the first to become an MS star?
A. Algol A
B. Algol B
C. Algol C
D. The 3 stars became MS stars at the same time.
30. Based on Fact 5, would Student 2 agree that by the
time Algol A stops being an MS star, Algol A will
have spent as much time being an MS star as Algol B
spent being an MS star?
F. Yes, because according to Student 2, Algol A has
always been more massive than Algol B.
G. Yes, because according to Student 2, Algol A has
always been less massive than Algol B.
H. No, because according to Student 2, Algol A has
always been more massive than Algol B.
J. No, because according to Student 2, Algol A has
always been less massive than Algol B.
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
ACT-67C-PRACTICE
44
Passage VI
Three experiments were done using CO
2
, krypton
(Kr), or O
2
. For each gas:
1. A 3 L steel vessel was fitted with a cap that contained a
gas inlet valve and a pressure and temperature sensor.
2. Air was pumped out of the vessel until the pressure
measured 0.00 torr.
3. The vessel was placed on a balance, and the balance was
reset to 0.000 g.
4. Some of the gas was added to the vessel.
5. When the gas in the vessel reached room temperature
(22°C), mass and pressure were recorded.
6. Steps 4 and 5 were repeated several times.
The experiments were then repeated, except that a 6 L
vessel was used (see Figures 1 and 2).
Figure 1
Figure 2
31. Based on Figure 2, if 13 g of Kr had been added to the
6 L vessel, the pressure would have been:
A. less than 200 torr.
B. between 200 torr and 400 torr.
C. between 400 torr and 600 torr.
D. greater than 600 torr.
32. Suppose the experiments had been repeated, except
with a 5 L vessel. Based on Figures 1 and 2, the pres-
sure exerted by 7 g of CO
2
would most likely have
been:
F. less than 500 torr.
G. between 500 torr and 1,000 torr.
H. between 1,000 torr and 1,500 torr.
J. greater than 1,500 torr.
33. Based on Figures 1 and 2, for a given mass of O
2
at
22°C, how does the pressure exerted by the O
2
in a
6 L vessel compare to the pressure exerted by the O
2
in
a 3 L vessel? In the 6 L vessel, the O
2
pressure will be:
A. as great as in the 3 L vessel.
B. the same as in the 3 L vessel.
C. 2 times as great as in the 3 L vessel.
D. 4 times as great as in the 3 L vessel.
34. Which of the following best explains why equal
masses of O
2
and CO
2
at the same temperature and in
the same-size vessel had different pressures? The pres-
sure exerted by the O
2
was:
F. less, because there were fewer O
2
molecules per
gram than there were CO
2
molecules per gram.
G. less, because there were more O
2
molecules per
gram than there were CO
2
molecules per gram.
H. greater, because there were fewer O
2
molecules
per gram than there were CO
2
molecules per gram.
J. greater, because there were more O
2
molecules per
gram than there were CO
2
molecules per gram.
35. Suppose the experiment involving O
2
and the 6 L
vessel had been repeated, except at a room temperature
of 14°C. For a given mass of O
2
, compared to the pres-
sure measured in the original experiment, the pressure
measured at 14°C would have been:
A. less, because pressure is directly proportional to
temperature.
B. less, because pressure is inversely proportional to
temperature.
C. greater, because pressure is directly proportional
to temperature.
D. greater, because pressure is inversely proportional
to temperature.
1
__
2
pressure (torr)
CO
2
10
1,000
800
600
400
200
0
86420
mass of gas added (g)
6 L vessel
O
2
Kr
pressure (torr)
CO
2
10
2,000
1,600
1,200
800
400
0
86420
mass of gas added (g)
3 L vessel
O
2
Kr
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
ACT-67C-PRACTICE
44
50
51
Passage VII
The human threshold of hearing is the minimum
intensity at each sound frequency required for a sound to
be heard by humans. The human threshold of pain is the
maximum intensity at each sound frequency that humans
can tolerate without pain.
The figure below displays, for sounds in water and in
air, the human thresholds of hearing and of pain. The figure
also shows S, the percent increase in air density and water
density that accompanies the compression of air and water
by sound waves of given intensities. Sound intensities are
given in decibels (db) and frequencies are given in hertz
[(Hz); 1 Hz = 1 cycle/sec].
Figure adapted from Rita G. Lerner and George L. Trigg, eds.,
Encyclopedia of Physics
, 2nd ed. ©1991 by VCH Publishers, Inc.
36. According to the figure, which of the following is clos-
est to the lowest frequency that can be heard by a
human being?
F. 00,008 Hz
G. 00,020 Hz
H. 01,000 Hz
J. 20,000 Hz
37. As humans age, it is common for selective hearing loss
to occur at high sound frequencies. Which of the fol-
lowing figures best illustrates this loss?
38. Based on the figure, a sound of a given frequency will
have the highest intensity for which of the following
sets of conditions?
Sound is passing through: 000S000
F. water 100%
G. water 010
–8
%
H. air 100%
J. air 010
–8
%
39. A student hypothesized that sounds of any intensity at
a frequency of 10
5
Hz would be painful for humans to
hear. Do the data in the figure support this hypothesis?
A. Yes, because the threshold of pain is relatively
constant with changes in frequency.
B. Yes, because as frequency increases above 10
5
Hz,
the threshold of pain increases.
C. No, because humans cannot hear sounds at 10
5
Hz.
D. No, because the threshold of pain is relatively con-
stant with changes in frequency.
40. Based on the figure, does S depend on the frequency of
a sound wave of a given intensity?
F. Yes, because as frequency increases, S increases.
G. Yes, because as frequency increases, S remains
constant.
H. No, because as frequency increases, S increases.
J. No, because as frequency increases, S remains
constant.
A.
Key
before loss after loss
B.
C.
D.
threshold
of hearing
intensity
frequency
threshold
of hearing
intensity
frequency
threshold
of hearing
intensity
frequency
threshold
of hearing
intensity
frequency
intensity (db)
frequency (Hz)
020406080100120140160180200220240
1
×
10
1
1
×
10
2
10
3
10
4
10
5
2
4
6
8
2
×
10
1
4
×
10
1
6
×
10
1
8
×
10
1
2
4
6
8
2
4
6
8
2
4
6
8
S = 10
8
%
S = 10
2
% S = 10
1
% S = 100%
threshold
of pain
threshold
of hearing
–20
10
0
Key
in air in water
ACT-67C-PRACTICE
44
END OF TEST 4
STOP! DO NOT RETURN TO ANY OTHER TEST.
[See Note on page 5.]
If you plan to take the ACT Plus Writing, sharpen your pencils and
continue with the Writing Test on page 53.
If you do not plan to take the ACT Plus Writing, skip to page 55 for
instructions on scoring your multiple-choice tests.
52
53
WRITING TEST
BOOKLET
Form 14R
Directions
This is a test of your writing skills. You will have thirty (30) minutes to write an
essay in English. Before you begin planning and writing your essay, read the
writing prompt carefully to understand exactly what you are being asked to do.
Your essay will be evaluated on the evidence it provides of your ability to
express judgments by taking a position on the issue in the writing prompt;
to maintain a focus on the topic throughout the essay; to develop a position by
using logical reasoning and by supporting your ideas; to organize ideas in a
logical way; and to use language clearly and effectively according to the
conventions of standard written English.
You may use the unlined pages in this test booklet to plan your essay. These
pages will not be scored. You must write your essay in pencil on the lined pages
in the answer folder. Your writing on those lined pages will be scored. You may
not need all the lined pages, but to ensure you have enough room to finish, do
NOT skip lines. You may write corrections or additions neatly between the lines
of your essay, but do NOT write in the margins of the lined pages. Illegible
essays cannot be scored, so you must write (or print) clearly.
If you finish before time is called, you may review your work. Lay your pencil
down immediately when time is called.
DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL TOLD TO DO SO.
Y
our Signature:
(Do not print.)
Print Your Name Here:
Your Date of Birth:
Month Day Year
You must take the multiple-choice tests before you take the Writing Test.
PO BOX 168
IOWA CITY, IA 52243-0168
© 2014 by ACT, Inc. All rights reserved.
NOTE: This test material is the confidential copyrighted property of
ACT, Inc., and may not be copied, reproduced, sold, or otherwise transferred
without the prior express written permission of ACT, Inc. Violators of ACT’s
copyrights are subject to civil and criminal penalties.
Practice Writing Test
54
ACT Writing Test Prompt
Note
For your practice essay, you will need scratch paper to plan your essay and four lined sheets
of paper for your response.
On test day, you will receive a test booklet with space to plan your essay and four lined
pages on which to write your response.
Read pages 61–62 for information and instructions on scoring your practice Writing Test.
ACT-14R-PRACTICE
Rather than concentrating on doing one thing at a time, high
school students often divide their attention among several
activities, such as watching television and using the computer
while doing homework. Educators debate whether performing
several tasks at the same time is too distracting when students
are doing homework. Some educators believe multitasking is a
bad practice when doing homework because they think dividing
attention between multiple tasks negatively affects the quality
of studentswork. Other educators do not believe multitasking
is a bad practice when doing homework because they think
students accomplish more during their limited free time as a
result of multitasking. In your opinion, is it too distracting for
high school students to divide their attention among several
activities when they are doing homework?
In your essay, take a position on this question. You may write
about either one of the two points of view given, or you may
present a different point of view on this question. Use specific
reasons and examples to support your position.
55
5Scoring Your Tests
How to Score the
Multiple-Choice Tests
Follow the instructions below and on the following pages to
score your practice multiple-choice tests and review your
performance.
Raw Scores
The number of questions you answered correctly on each
test and in each subscore area is your raw score. Because
there are many forms of the ACT, each with different
questions, some forms will be slightly easier (and some
slightly harder) than others. A raw score of 67 on one form
of the English Test, for example, may be about as difficult
to earn as a raw score of 70 on another form of that test.
To compute your raw scores, check your answers with the
scoring keys on pages 56–57. Count the number of correct
answers for each of the four tests and seven subscore
areas, and enter the number in the blanks provided on
those pages. These numbers are your raw scores on the
tests and subscore areas.
Scale Scores
To adjust for the small differences that occur among
different forms of the ACT, the raw scores for tests and
subscore areas are converted into scale scores. Scale
scores are printed on the reports sent to you and your
college and scholarship choices.
When your raw scores are converted into scale scores, it
becomes possible to compare your scores with those of
examinees who took different test forms. For example, a
scale score of 26 on the English Test has the same meaning
regardless of the form of the ACT on which it is based.
To determine the scale scores corresponding to your raw
scores on the practice test, use the tables explaining
procedures used to obtain scale scores from raw scores on
pages 58–59. Table 1 on page 58 shows the raw-to-scale
score conversions for each test, and Table 2 on page 59
shows the raw-to-scale score conversions for the subscore
areas. Because each form of the ACT is unique, each form
has somewhat different conversion tables. Consequently,
these tables provide only approximations of the raw-to-scale
score conversions that would apply if a different form of the
ACT were taken. Therefore, the scale scores obtained from
the practice tests don’t match precisely the scale scores
received from an actual administration of the ACT.
Computing the Composite Score
The Composite score is the average of the four scale scores
in English, Mathematics, Reading, and Science. If you left
any of these tests blank, do not calculate a Composite score.
If you take the ACT Plus Writing, your Writing results do not
affect your Composite score.
Comparing Your Scores
You may want to know how your scores compare to the
scores of other students who took the ACT.
Table 3A on page 60 lets you compare your scores on the
practice multiple-choice tests with the scores of recent high
school graduates who took the ACT. The numbers reported
are cumulative percents. A cumulative percent is the
percent of students who scored at or below a given score.
If a Composite score of 20 has a cumulative percent of 48,
this means that 48% of students had a Composite score of
2
0 or lower.
Your scores and percent at or below are only estimates of the
scores that you will receive during an actual administration of
the ACT. Test scores are only one indicator of your level of
learning. Consider your scores in connection with your
grades, your performance in outside activities, and your
career interests.
College Readiness Standards
The College Readiness Standards describe the types of
skills, strategies, and understandings you will need to make
a successful transition from high school to college. For
English, Mathematics, Reading, and Science, standards
are provided for six score ranges that reflect the
progression and complexity of the skills in each of the
academic areas measured by the ACT tests. For Writing,
standards are provided for five score ranges. The College
Readiness Standards and benchmark scores for each test
can be found at www.act.org/standard and
www.act.org/education/benchmarks.html.
Reviewing Your
Performance on the Practice
Multiple-Choice Tests
Consider the following as you review your scores.
Did you run out of time? Reread the information in this
booklet on pacing yourself. You may need to adjust the
way you use your time in responding to the questions.
Did you spend too much time trying to understand the
directions for the tests? The directions for the practice
tests are the same directions that will appear in your test
booklet on test day. Make sure you understand them
before test day.
Review the questions that you missed. Did you select a
response that was an incomplete answer or that did not
directly respond to the question being asked? Try to figure
out what you overlooked in answering the questions.
Did a particular type of question confuse you? Did the
questions you missed come from a particular subscore
area? In reviewing your responses, check to see whether
a particular type of question or a particular subscore
area was more difficult for you.
56
Subscore
Area*
Key EA AG GT
1. A ___
2. F ___
3. E ___
4. J ___
5. C ___
6. K ___
7. E ___
8. H ___
9. A ___
10. J ___
11. D ___
12. K ___
13. B ___
14. F ___
15. C ___
16. J ___
17. B ___
18. J ___
19. D ___
20. J ___
21. E ___
22. G ___
23. B ___
24. H ___
25. A ___
26. G ___
27. B ___
28. H ___
29. E ___
30. K ___
31. E ___
32. G ___
33. D ___
34. F ___
Subscore
Area*
Key EA AG GT
35. D ___
36. F ___
37. B ___
38. G ___
39. C ___
40. G ___
41. B ___
42. F ___
43. D ___
44. H ___
45. A ___
46. J ___
47. C ___
48. H ___
49. B ___
50. F ___
51. C ___
52. J ___
53. E ___
54. K ___
55. C ___
56. J ___
57. E ___
58. G ___
59. C ___
60. F ___
Number Correct (Raw Score) for:
Pre-Alg./Elem. Alg. (EA) Subscore Area _______
(24)
Inter. Alg./Coord. Geo. (AG) Subscore Area _______
(18)
Plane Geo./Trig. (GT) Subscore Area _______
(18)
Total Number Correct for Math Test (EA + AG + GT) _______
(60)
*EA = Pre-Algebra/Elementary Algebra
AG = Intermediate Algebra/Coordinate Geometry
GT = Plane Geometry/Trigonometry 1267C
S
coring Keys for the ACT Practice Tests
U
se the scoring key for each test to score your answer document for the multiple-choice tests. Mark a “1” in the
blank for each question you answered correctly. Add up the numbers in each subscore area and enter the total
number correct for each subscore area in the blanks provided. Also enter the total number correct for each test in
the blanks provided. The total number correct for each test is the sum of the number correct in each subscore area.
Test 1: EnglishScoring Key Test 2: Mathematics—Scoring Key
Subscore
Area*
Key UM RH
1. B ___
2. J ___
3. D ___
4. F ___
5. B ___
6. J ___
7. D ___
8. F ___
9. A ___
10. H ___
11. A ___
12. H ___
13. D ___
14. G ___
15. B ___
16. G ___
17. C ___
18. G ___
19. D ___
20. F ___
21. B ___
22. J ___
23. C ___
24. F ___
25. C ___
26. G ___
27. A ___
28. G ___
29. C ___
30. J ___
31. B ___
32. J ___
33. D ___
34. H ___
35. B ___
36. H ___
37. C ___
38. F ___
Subscore
Area*
Key UM RH
39. C ___
40. J ___
41. B ___
42. F ___
43. B ___
44. J ___
45. A ___
46. J ___
47. C ___
48. F ___
49. B ___
50. F ___
51. B ___
52. J ___
53. D ___
54. H ___
55. A ___
56. H ___
57. B ___
58. H ___
59. A ___
60. G ___
61. A ___
62. H ___
63. A ___
64. H ___
65. D ___
66. G ___
67. A ___
68. J ___
69. A ___
70. G ___
71. D ___
72. J ___
73. C ___
74. G ___
75. D ___
Number Correct (Raw Score) for:
Usage/Mechanics (UM) Subscore Area _______
(40)
Rhetorical Skills (RH) Subscore Area _______
(35)
Total Number Correct for English Test _______
(UM + RH) (75)
*UM = Usage/Mechanics
RH = Rhetorical Skills 1267C
57
Test 3: Reading—Scoring Key
Subscore
Area*
Key SS AL
1. D ______
2. H ______
3
. B ______
4. G ______
5. B ______
6. F ______
7. C ______
8. F ______
9. D ______
10. H ______
11. C ______
12. F ______
13. C ______
14. G ______
Subscore
Area*
Key SS AL
15. D ______
16. H ______
1
7. B ______
18. J ______
19. A ______
20. F ______
21. C ______
22. J ______
23. A ______
24. J ______
25. C ______
26. F ______
27. C ______
28. J ______
Subscore
Area*
Key SS AL
29. A ______
30. F ______
3
1. B ______
32. H ______
33. D ______
34. J ______
35. B ______
36. G ______
37. B ______
38. F ______
39. A ______
40. F ______
Number Correct (Raw Score) for:
Social Studies/Sciences (SS) Subscore Area _______
(20)
Arts/Literature (AL) Subscore Area _______
(20)
Total Number Correct for Reading Test (SS + AL) _______
(40)
*SS = Social Studies/Sciences
AL = Arts/Literature
Test 4: Science—Scoring Key
Key
1. D ______
2. J ______
3. B ______
4. J ______
5. C ______
6. F ______
7. D ______
8. G ______
9. A ______
10. H ______
11. C ______
12. F ______
13. B ______
14. H ______
Key
15. A ______
16. G ______
17. D ______
18. F ______
19. B ______
20. J ______
21. C ______
22. J ______
23. A ______
24. H ______
25. B ______
26. G ______
27. C ______
28. G ______
Key
29. B ______
30. H ______
31. C ______
32. G ______
33. A ______
34. J ______
35. A ______
36. G ______
37. A ______
38. F ______
39. C ______
40. J ______
Number Correct (Raw Score) for:
Total Number Correct for Science Test _______
(40)
1267C
58
TABLE 1
E
xplanation of Procedures Used to Obtain Scale Scores from Raw Scores
On each of the four multiple-choice tests on which you
marked any responses, the total number of correct
responses yields a raw score. Use the table below to convert
your raw scores to scale scores. For each test, locate and
circle your raw score or the range of raw scores that includes
it in the table below. Then, read across to either outside
c
olumn of the table and circle the scale score that
corresponds to that raw score. As you determine your scale
scores, enter them in the blanks provided on the right. The
highest possible scale score for each test is 36. The lowest
possible scale score for any test on which you marked any
responses is 1.
Next, compute the Composite score by averaging the four
scale scores. To do this, add your four scale scores and
divide the sum by 4. If the resulting number ends in a
fraction, round it to the nearest whole number. (Round down
any fraction less than one-half; round up any fraction that is
one-half or more.) Enter this number in the blank. This is your
Composite score. The highest possible Composite score is
36. The lowest possible Composite score is 1.
ACT Test 67C Your Scale Score
E
nglish ________
Mathematics ________
Reading ________
Science ________
Sum of scores ________
Composite score (sum ÷ 4) ________
NOTE: If you left a test completely blank and marked no
items, do not list a scale score for that test. If any test was
completely blank, do not calculate a Composite score.
1267C
Raw Scores
Scale
Score
36
35
34
33
32
31
30
29
28
27
26
25
24
23
22
21
20
19
18
17
16
15
14
13
12
11
10
9
8
7
6
5
4
3
2
1
Test 1
English
75
73-74
71-72
70
69
68
67
66
64-65
62-63
60-61
58-59
56-57
53-55
51-52
48-50
45-47
42-44
40-41
38-39
35-37
33-34
30-32
29
27-28
25-26
23-24
20-22
17-19
14-16
11-13
09-10
6-8
5
3-4
0-2
Test 2
Mathematics
59-60
57-58
55-56
54
53
52
50-51
49
47-48
45-46
43-44
41-42
38-40
36-37
34-35
33
31-32
29-30
27-28
24-26
19-23
15-18
12-14
10-11
8-9
6-7
5
4
3
2
1
0
Test 3
Reading
40
39
38
37
36
35
34
33
32
31
30
29
27-28
26
25
23-24
22
20-21
19
18
16-17
14-15
13
11-12
09-10
8
7
6
5
4
3
2
1
0
Test 4
Science
40
39
38
37
36
35
34
33
31-32
30
28-29
26-27
24-25
23
21-22
19-20
17-18
16
14-15
13
12
11
10
9
8
7
6
5
4
3
2
1
0
Scale
Score
36
35
34
33
32
31
30
29
28
27
26
25
24
23
22
21
20
19
18
17
16
15
14
13
12
11
10
9
8
7
6
5
4
3
2
1
59
Explanation of Procedures Used to Obtain
Scale Subscores from Raw Scores
For each of the seven subscore areas, the total number of correct
responses yields a raw score. Use the table below to convert your raw
scores to scale subscores. For each of the seven subscore areas,
locate and circle either the raw score or the range of raw scores that
includes it in the table below. Then, read across to either outside
column of the table and circle the scale subscore that corresponds to
that raw score. As you determine your scale subscores, enter them in
the blanks provided on the right. The highest possible scale subscore
is 18. The lowest possible scale subscore is 1.
If you left a test completely blank and marked no responses, do not list
any scale subscores for that test.
ACT Test 67C Your Scale Subscore
English
Usage/Mechanics ________
Rhetorical Skills ________
Mathematics
Pre-Algebra/Elementary Algebra ________
Intermed. Algebra/Coord. Geometry ________
Plane Geometry/Trigonometry ________
Reading
Social Studies/Sciences ________
Arts/Literature ________
TABLE 2
1267C
Scale
Subscore
18
17
16
15
14
13
12
11
10
9
8
7
6
5
4
3
2
1
Usage/
Mechanics
39-40
37-38
35-36
34
32-33
31
29-30
27-28
24-26
22-23
20-21
18-19
16-17
14-15
12-13
09-11
6-8
0-5
Rhetorical
Skills
35
34
33
31-32
29-30
27-28
25-26
22-24
20-21
18-19
15-17
13-14
12
10-11
8-9
5-7
3-4
0-2
Pre-Algebra/
Elem. Algebra
23-24
22
21
20
19
18
17
16
15
13-14
11-12
09-10
6-8
5
3-4
2
1
0
Inter. Algebra/
Coord. Geometry
18
17
16
15
13-14
12
10-11
9
7-8
6
4-5
3
2
1
0
Plane Geometry/
Trigonometry
18
17
16
14-15
13
11-12
10
9
7-8
6
5
4
3
2
1
0
Social Studies/
Sciences
20
19
18
17
16
15
14
12-13
11
09-10
8
6-7
5
4
3
2
1
0
Arts/
Literature
20
18-19
17
16
15
14
13
12
11
10
9
8
6-7
5
3-4
2
0-1
Scale
Subscore
18
17
16
15
14
13
12
11
10
9
8
7
6
5
4
3
2
1
Raw Scores
Test 1 English Test 2 Mathematics Test 3 Reading
National Distributions of Cumulative Percents for ACT Test Scores
ACT-Tested High School Graduates from 2011, 2012, and 2013
Score
ENGLISH
Usage/Mechanics
Rhetorical Skills
MATHEMATICS
Pre-Algebra/Elem. Alg.
Alg./Coord. Geometry
Plane Geometry/Trig.
READING
Soc. Studies/Sciences
Arts/Literature
SCIENCE
COMPOSITE
Score
36 99 99 99 99 99 36
35 99 99 99 99 99 35
34 99 99 99 99 99 34
33 97 98 97 99 99 33
32 96 97 95 98 98 32
31 94 96 93 97 97 31
30 92 95 90 96 95 30
29 90 93 87 95 93 29
28 88 91 85 93 90 28
27 85 88 82 90 87 27
26 82 84 79 87 83 26
25 78 79 75 83 79 25
24 74 73 72 77 74 24
23 68 67 66 70 68 23
22 63 60 61 63 62 22
21 57 55 55 56 55 21
20 50 51 48 47 49 20
19 44 47 42 38 42 19
18 39 99 99 41 99 99 99 36 99 99 32 35 18
17 34 97 98 35 96 99 99 30 97 97 25 28 17
16 30 92 98 26 92 98 98 25 93 92 20 22 16
15 25 88 92 14 88 95 95 20 87 86 16 17 15
14 19 83 86 06 82 91 90 15 82 79 12 11 14
13 15 78 79 02 75 83 82 11 76 73 09 07 13
12 12 72 71 01 66 72 73 07 68 66 06 03 12
11 09 65 60 01 58 63 62 04 58 58 04 01 11
10 06 56 49 01 48 50 51 02 49 49 02 01 10
09 04 44 40 01 40 36 38 01 40 40 01 01 09
08 02 36 28 01 33 23 25 01 29 32 01 01 08
07 01 28 20 01 22 13 15 01 20 23 01 01 07
06 01 20 13 01 10 07 09 01 11 17 01 01 06
05 01 13 09 01 04 04 05 01 06 10 01 01 05
04 01 08 05 01 01 02 03 01 02 04 01 01 04
03 01 04 02 01 01 01 01 01 01 02 01 01 03
02 01 01 01 01 01 01 01 01 01 01 01 01 02
01 01 01 01 01 01 01 01 01 01 01 01 01 01
Mean 20.4 10.2 10.5 21.0 10.9 10.6 10.5 21.2 10.8 10.7 20.8 21.0
S.D. 6.5 4.0 3.5 5.3 3.6 2.9 3.1 6.2 3.6 3.9 5.2 5.3
Note: These norms are the source of national norms, for multiple-choice tests, printed on ACT score reports during the
2013–2014 testing year. Sample size: 5,088,372.
2
Use the norms tables below (3A and 3B) to determine
your estimated percent at or below for each of your
multiple-choice scale scores (3A), and for your Writing
scores (3B), if applicable.
In the far left column of the multiple-choice norms table
(3A), circle your scale score for the English Test (from
page 56). Then read across to the percent at or below
column for that test; circle or put a check mark beside
the corresponding percent at or below. Use the same
procedure for each test and subscore area. Use the far
right column of scale scores in Table 3A, for your Science
Test and Composite scores. Follow the same procedure
on the Writing Test norms to get your estimated percent
at or below for your Writing subscore and Combined
English/Writing score.
As you mark your percents at or below, enter them in the
blanks provided at the right. You may also find it helpful to
compare your performance with the national mean (average)
score for each of the tests, subscore areas, and the
Composite as shown at the bottom of the norms tables.
Y
our Estimated
Percent At or Below
on Practice Test
English ________
Usage/Mechanics ________
Rhetorical Skills ________
M
athematics ________
Pre-Algebra/Elem. Alg. ________
Alg./Coord. Geometry ________
Plane Geometry/Trig. ________
Reading ________
Soc. Studies/Sciences ________
Arts/Literature ________
Science ________
Composite ________
Combined English/Writing ________
Writing ________
TABLES 3A and 3B
Norms Tables
3A
3B
60
National Distributions of Cumulative Percents
for ACT Writing Test Scores
ACT-Tested High School Graduates
from 2011, 2012, and 2013
Combined
Score English/Writing Writing
36 99
35 99
34 99
33 99
32 99
31 98
30 95
29 93
28 90
27 87
26 84
25 79
24 75
23 70
22 61
21 55
20 47
19 41
18 35
17 30
16 25
15 19
14 15
13 11
12 999
11 699
10 499
9 395
8 288
7 152
6 138
5 112
4 17
3 13
2 12
1 1
Mean 20.7 7.0
S.D. 5.8 1.6
Note: These norms are the source of the Writing Test
norms printed on the ACT score reports of students who
take the optional Writing Test during 20132014. Sample
size: 2,778,952.
61
Score = 6—Essays within this score range demonstrate effective skill
in responding to the task.
The essay shows a clear understanding of the task. The essay takes a
position on the issue and may offer a critical context for discussion. The
essay addresses complexity by examining different perspectives on the
issue, or by evaluating the implications and/or complications of the issue,
or by fully responding to counterarguments to the writer’s position.
Development of ideas is ample, specific, and logical. Most ideas are
fully elaborated. A clear focus on the specific issue in the prompt is
maintained. The organization of the essay is clear: the organization may
be somewhat predictable or it may grow from the writer’s purpose. Ideas
are logically sequenced. Most transitions reflect the writer’s logic and are
usually integrated into the essay. The introduction and conclusion are
effective, clear, and well developed. The essay shows a good command
of language. Sentences are varied and word choice is varied and
precise. There are few, if any, errors to distract the reader.
Score = 5—Essays within this score range demonstrate competent
skill in responding to the task.
The essay shows a clear understanding of the task. The essay takes a
position on the issue and may offer a broad context for discussion. The
essay shows recognition of complexity by partially evaluating the
implications and/or complications of the issue, or by responding to
counterarguments to the writer’s position. Development of ideas is
specific and logical. Most ideas are elaborated, with clear movement
between general statements and specific reasons, examples, and
details. Focus on the specific issue in the prompt is maintained. The
organization of the essay is clear, although it may be predictable. Ideas
are logically sequenced, although simple and obvious transitions may be
used. The introduction and conclusion are clear and generally well
developed. Language is competent. Sentences are somewhat varied and
word choice is sometimes varied and precise. There may be a few errors,
but they are rarely distracting.
Score = 4—Essays within this score range demonstrate adequate
skill in responding to the task.
The essay shows an understanding of the task. The essay takes a
position on the issue and may offer some context for discussion. The
essay may show some recognition of complexity by providing some
response to counterarguments to the writer’s position. Development of
ideas is adequate, with some movement between general statements
and specific reasons, examples, and details. Focus on the specific
issue in the prompt is maintained throughout most of the essay. The
organization of the essay is apparent but predictable. Some evidence of
logical sequencing of ideas is apparent, although most transitions are
simple and obvious. The introduction and conclusion are clear and
somewhat developed. Language is adequate, with some sentence
variety and appropriate word choice. There may be some distracting
errors, but they do not impede understanding.
Score = 3—Essays within this score range demonstrate some
developing skill in responding to the task.
The essay shows some understanding of the task. The essay takes a
position on the issue but does not offer a context for discussion. The
essay may acknowledge a counterargument to the writer’s position, but
its development is brief or unclear. Development of ideas is limited and
may be repetitious, with little, if any, movement between general
statements and specific reasons, examples, and details. Focus on the
general topic is maintained, but focus on the specific issue in the prompt
may not be maintained. The organization of the essay is simple. Ideas
are logically grouped within parts of the essay, but there is little or no
evidence of logical sequencing of ideas. Transitions, if used, are simple
and obvious. An introduction and conclusion are clearly discernible but
underdeveloped. Language shows a basic control. Sentences show a
little variety and word choice is appropriate. Errors may be distracting
and may occasionally impede understanding.
Score = 2—Essays within this score range demonstrate inconsistent
or weak skill in responding to the task.
The essay shows a weak understanding of the task. The essay may not
take a position on the issue, or the essay may take a position but fail to
convey reasons to support that position, or the essay may take a position
but fail to maintain a stance. There is little or no recognition of a
counterargument to the writer’s position. The essay is thinly developed.
If examples are given, they are general and may not be clearly relevant.
The essay may include extensive repetition of the writer’s ideas or of
ideas in the prompt. Focus on the general topic is maintained, but focus
on the specific issue in the prompt may not be maintained. There is
some indication of an organizational structure, and some logical
grouping of ideas within parts of the essay is apparent. Transitions, if
used, are simple and obvious, and they may be inappropriate or
misleading. An introduction and conclusion are discernible but minimal.
Sentence structure and word choice are usually simple. Errors may be
frequently distracting and may sometimes impede understanding.
Score = 1—Essays within this score range show little or no skill in
responding to the task.
The essay shows little or no understanding of the task. If the essay takes
a position, it fails to convey reasons to support that position. The essay is
minimally developed. The essay may include excessive repetition of the
writer’s ideas or of ideas in the prompt. Focus on the general topic is
usually maintained, but focus on the specific issue in the prompt may
not be maintained. There is little or no evidence of an organizational
structure or of the logical grouping of ideas. Transitions are rarely used.
If present, an introduction and conclusion are minimal. Sentence
structure and word choice are simple. Errors may be frequently
distracting and may significantly impede understanding.
No Score—Blank, Off-Topic, Illegible, Not in English, or Void
How to Score the Writing Test
It is difficult to be objective about one’s own work. However, it is
to your advantage to read your own writing critically. Becoming
your own editor helps you grow as a writer and as a reader. It
may also be helpful for you to give your practice essay to another
reader: a classmate, parent, or teacher. To rate your essay, you
and your reader(s) should review the scoring guidelines and
sample essays at www.actstudent.org/writing, and then assign
your practice essay a score of 1 (low) through 6 (high).
Scoring Guidelines (below)
These are the guidelines that will be used to score your essay. To
score your paper, read your response and try to determine which
score point best describes your essay.
B
ecause your Writing Test subscore (2–12 range) is the sum of
two readers’ ratings of your essay, you should multiply your score
by 2 when you use Table 4, on page 62, to find your Combined
English/Writing score. If two readers score your practice essay,
add those scores together.
Comparing Your Scores
The Writing Test norms table (Table 3B on page 60) allows you to
compare your score on the practice Writing Test with the scores
of recent high school graduates who took the ACT Plus Writing.
For example, a Writing subscore of 8 has a cumulative percent of
87. This means that 87% of students had a Writing subscore of 8
or lower. Your scores and percents at or below are only estimates
of the scores you will receive on an actual administration of the
ACT Plus Writing. They should be considered in connection with
y
our performance on other essay tests and your planned college
curriculum.
Scoring Guidelines for the ACT Writing Test
Papers at each level exhibit all or most of the characteristics described at each score point.
Complete these steps to calculate your Combined English/
Writing score for your practice tests.
1. Locate your scale score for the English Test on page 58
and enter it here: ______.
2. Enter your Writing Test score (1–6) here ______ and
double it to get your Writing subscore (2–12): _____
(If two people read and scored your Writing Test, add
t
hose two scores to get your Writing subscore.)
3. Use the table below to find your Combined
English/Writing score.
First, circle your ACT English Test score in the left
column.
Second, circle your ACT Writing subscore at the top
of the table.
Finally, follow the English Test score row across and
the Writing subscore column down until the two meet.
Circle the Combined English/Writing score where the
row and column meet. (For example, for an English
Test score of 19 and a Writing subscore of 6, the
Combined English/Writing score is 18.)
4. Using the number you circled in the table below, write
y
our Combined English/Writing score here: ______.
(The highest possible Combined English/Writing score is
36 and the lowest possible score is 1.)
ACT English Test score _________________
Writing subscore _________________
Combined English/Writing Score _______________
(from table below)
TABLE 4
Calculating Your Combined English/Writing Score
Combined English/Writing Scale Scores
English Writing Subscore
Test
Score 2345678910 11 12
112345678910 11
223456678910 11
32345678910 11 12
4345678910 11 12 13
545678910 11 12 12 13
656778910 11 12 13 14
75678910 11 12 13 14 15
8678910 11 12 13 14 15 16
978910 11 12 13 13 14 15 16
10 89910 11 12 13 14 15 16 17
11 8910 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
12 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19
13 10 11 12 13 14 14 15 16 17 18 19
14 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
15 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21
16 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 20 21
17 13 14 15 16 16 17 18 19 20 21 22
18 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23
19 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24
20 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 21 22 23 24
21 16 17 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25
22 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26
23 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27
24 18 19 20 21 22 23 23 24 25 26 27
25 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28
26 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29
27 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 28 29
28 21 22 23 24 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
29 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31
30 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32
31 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 30 31 32
32 24 25 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33
33 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34
34 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
35 26 27 28 29 30 31 31 32 33 34 35
36 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
62
You may wish to remove this sample answer document from the booklet to use in a practice test session for the four multiple-choice tests.
Cut Here
|
PLEASE DO NOT WRITE IN THIS AREA.
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Incorrect marks:
Overlapping mark:
C
ross-out mark:
Smudged erasure:
Mark is too light:
62C
6
4F
65B
66A
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69G
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95U
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95Y
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97U
P
AGE 2
BOOKLET NUMBER
TEST 1
TEST 2
TEST 3
TEST 4
ACT STUDENT REVIEW: The test administrator will give you instructions for completing this section.
FORM
Print your
3
-character
T
est Form in
t
he boxes
above and
fill in the
c
orresponding
o
val at the
right.
M
arking Directions: Mark only one oval for
each question. Fill in response completely.
Erase errors cleanly without smudging.
Do NOT use these incorrect or bad marks.
C
orrect mark:
BE SURE TO FILL IN THE CORRECT FORM OVAL.
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75
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Student Review: Yo u r r e s p o n s e s t o t h e s e i t e m s w i l l a s s i s t A C T
and your test center in providing the best possible conditions for
testing and planning for the future. Fill in the oval indicating your
response to each item printed on the back of your test booklet.
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Ye s
No Ye s No Ye s No
1
267C