PREPARING FOR THE ACT

COLLEGE READINESS ASSESSMENT

2014–2015

What’s Inside

■

Full-Length Practice Tests, including

a Writing Test

■

Information about the Optional

Writing Test

■

Strategies to Prepare for the Tests

■

What to Expect on Test Day

Esta publicación también se

puede ver o descargar en español en

www.actstudent.org/testprep

This booklet is provided free of charge.

Available as a PDF at www.actstudent.org

Contents

1. General Preparation for the ACT Tests . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2

2. Strategies for Taking the ACT Tests . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4

3. What to Expect on Test Day . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 9

. Taking the Practice Tests . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 10

Practice Multiple-Choice Tests . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 11

Practice Writing Test . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 53

5. Scoring Your Tests . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 55

How to Score the Multiple-Choice Tests . . . . . . . . 55

How to Score the Writing Test. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 61

6. Sample Answer Document . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 63

A Message to Students

This booklet, which is provided free of charge, is intended

to help you do your best on the ACT

college readiness

assessment. Included in this booklet are complete

practice tests—“retired” ACT questions that were

administered to students on a national test date, including

a writing prompt—a sample answer document, answer

keys, and self-scoring instructions.

Read this booklet carefully and take the practice tests well

before test day so you will be familiar with the tests, what

they measure, and the strategies you can use to do your

best on test day.

Go to www.actstudent.org/testprep for additional ACT test

preparation materials, including ACT Online Prep

™

, The

Real ACT Prep Guide, sample questions, and the Question

of the Day.

ACT is committed to representing the diversity of our

society in all its aspects, including race, ethnicity, and

gender. Thus, test passages, questions, and writing

prompts are deliberately chosen to reflect the range of

cultures in our population.

We also are committed to ensuring that test questions and

writing prompts are fair—that they do not disadvantage any

particular group of examinees. Extensive reviews of the

fairness of test materials are rigorously conducted by both

ACT staff and external consultants. We also employ

statistical procedures to help ensure that our test materials

do not unfairly affect the performance of any group.

Note: Since the ACT is a curriculum-based achievement

test, we periodically conduct research and update our tests

accordingly to ensure our test content continues to reflect

classroom instruction and remains a relevant predictor of

college and career readiness. As a result, you may notice

subtle differences between this practice test and the test

you actually take on test day.

General Preparation

for the ACT Tests

General Test-Taking

Strategies for the ACT

The ACT contains multiple-choice tests in four areas:

English, Mathematics, Reading, and Science. Each of

these tests contains questions that offer either four or five

answer choices from which you are to choose the correct,

r best, answer. The following suggestions apply to all

four tests:

Pace yourself.

The time limits set for each test give nearly everyone enough

time to finish all the questions. However, because the

English, Reading, and Science Tests contain a considerable

amount of text, it is important to pace yourself so you will not

spend too much time on one passage. Similarly, try not to

spend too much time puzzling over an answer to a specific

problem in the Mathematics Test. Go on to the other

questions and come back if there is time. Your supervisor

will announce when you have five minutes remaining on

each test.

Read the directions for each test carefully.

Before you begin taking one of the tests, read the

directions carefully. The English, Reading, and Science

Tests ask for the “best” answer. Do not respond as soon as

you identify a correct answer. Read and consider all of the

answer choices and choose the answer that best responds

to the question.

The Mathematics Test asks for the “correct” answer. Read

each question carefully to make sure you understand the

type of answer required. Then, you may want to work out

the answer you feel is correct and look for it among the

choices given. If your answer is not among the choices

provided, reread the question and consider all of the

answer choices.

Read each question carefully.

It is important that you understand what each question

asks. Some questions will require you to go through several

steps to find the correct or best answer, while others can

be answered more quickly.

Answer the easy questions first.

The best strategy for taking the tests is to answer the easy

questions and skip the questions you find difficult. After

answering all of the easy questions, go back and answer

the more difficult questions if you have time.

NOTE: This booklet is covered by federal copyright laws that prohibit the

reproduction of the test questions without the prior express, written per-

mission of ACT, Inc. No portion of this booklet may be copied or distributed

without written permission of ACT.

ACT endorses the Code of Fair Testing Practices in Education and the Code of

Professional Responsibilities in Educational Measurement, guides to the conduct

of those involved in educational testing. ACT is committed to ensuring that each

of its testing programs upholds the guidelines in each Code. A copy of each Code

may be obtained free of charge from ACT Customer Services (70), PO Box 1008,

Iowa City, IA 52243-1008, 319.337.1429.

se logic on more difficult questions.

When you return to the more difficult questions, try to

use logic to eliminate incorrect answers to a question.

Compare the answer choices to each other and note how

they differ. Such differences may provide clues as to what

the question requires. Eliminate as many incorrect answers

as you can, then make an educated guess from the

remaining answers.

Answer every question.

Your score on the tests will be based only on the number of

questions that you answer correctly; there is no penalty

for guessing. Thus, you should answer every question

within the time allowed for each test.

Review your work.

If there is time left after you have answered every question in

a test, go back and check your work on that test. You will not

be allowed to go back to any other test or mark responses to

a test after time has been called on that test.

Be precise in marking your answer document.

Be sure that you properly fill in the correct ovals on your

answer document. Check to be sure that the number of the

line of ovals on your answer document is the same as the

number of the question you are answering and that you

mark only one response for each question.

Erase completely.

If you want to change a multiple-choice answer, be sure to

use a soft eraser that will not leave smudges and erase the

unintended mark completely. Do not cross out answers or

use correction fluid or tape; you must erase. Correction

fluid/tape, smudges, or unintended marks may cause

errors in scoring.

To students approved to test at national test centers

with extended time:

You will be allowed up to 5 hours total to work on the

multiple-choice tests at your own pace, including breaks

between tests. If you are taking the ACT Plus Writing, you

will be allowed up to 5 hours and 45 minutes total to work

on all five tests.

General Test-Taking Strategies

for the ACT Writing Test

The ACT Writing Test lets you show your skill in planning

and composing an essay. It measures writing proficiencies

that are taught in high school and are important for

readiness to succeed in entry-level college composition

courses.

The following general strategies will help if you take the

ACT Writing Test.

Pace yourself.

You will have 30 minutes to write your essay. It is important

to pace yourself in the way that best suits your personal

writing strategy. Many writers do best when they spend

part of their time planning the essay, most of their time

writing the essay, and the last part of their time reviewing

the essay to make corrections and small revisions. You are

unlikely to have time to draft, revise, and recopy your essay.

Budget your time based on your experience in taking essay

tests in school and in other circumstances when you’ve

done writing within a time limit. Your supervisor will

announce when you have five minutes remaining on the

Writing Test.

ead the directions carefully.

Before you begin the Writing Test, read the directions

carefully. They tell you the aspects of writing on which your

essay will be evaluated and give instructions on how to

write your essay in the answer folder.

ead the writing prompt carefully.

It is important that you understand exactly what the

writing prompt asks you to do. Be sure you have a clear

understanding of the issue in the writing prompt and of the

question you must respond to before you start to plan and

write your essay.

Write (or print) legibly in the answer folder.

If your readers cannot read what you have written, they will

not be able to score your essay. You must write your essay

using a soft lead No. 2 pencil (not a mechanical pencil or

ink pen) on the lined pages in the answer folder. You may

not need all the lined pages, but to ensure you have

enough room to finish, do not skip lines.

Make corrections clear.

If you make corrections, do so thoroughly and legibly. You

may write corrections or additions neatly between the lines

of your essay, but do not write in the margins.

Preparing for Test Day

• Prepare well in advance for the tests.

• Know what to expect on test day. Familiarize yourself

with the information in this booklet, and at

www.actstudent.org.

• Most procedures in this booklet refer to testing on a

National or International Test Date at an ACT test

center. Procedures may differ slightly if you test at

another location.

• Take the practice tests in order and review your

responses.

• Get plenty of rest the night before the tests.

• Carefully review the “Test Day Checklist” at

www.actstudent.org.

‰ Bring the following items with you to the test center:

1. Your paper ticket (if you test on a National or

International ACT Test Date). You will not be

admitted to test without it.

2. Acceptable photo identification. See details on

your ticket or at www.actstudent.org. If you do

not present acceptable photo identification with

your ticket at check-in, you will not be admitted to

test.

3. Sharpened soft lead No. 2 pencils with good

erasers (no mechanical pencils or ink pens). Do

not bring any other writing instruments; you will

not be allowed to use them.

4. A watch to pace yourself. Do not bring a watch

with an alarm, because it will disturb other

students. If your alarm sounds during testing, you

will be dismissed and your answer document will

not be scored. Your supervisor will announce when

you have five minutes remaining on each test.

5. A permitted calculator may be used on the ACT

athematics Test only. It is your responsibility to

know whether your calculator is permitted. For the

most current information on the ACT calculator

policy, visit www.actstudent.org or call

800.498.6481 for a recorded message.

Strategies for Taking

the ACT Tests

The ACT measures the knowledge, understanding, and

skills that you have acquired throughout your education.

Although the sum total of what a person has learned cannot

be changed, your performance in a specific area can be

affected by adequate preparation, especially if it has been

some time since you have taken a course in that area.

There are three strategies that can help you to prepare

yourself for the content included in the ACT:

Familiarize yourself with the content of the ACT tests.

Review the information about the tests that is provided on

the following pages. Note which content areas make up a

large proportion of the tests and which do not. The specific

topics included in each content area are examples of

possible topics; they do not include all of the possibilities.

Refresh your knowledge and skills in the content areas.

Review those content areas you have studied but are not

fresh in your mind. Spend your time refreshing your

knowledge and skills in the content areas that make up

large portions of the tests.

Identify the content areas you have not studied.

If unfamiliar content areas make up major portions of the

tests, consider taking coursework to help you gain

knowledge and skills in these areas before you take the

ACT. Because the ACT measures knowledge and skills

acquired over a period of time, it is unlikely that a “cram”

course covering material that is unfamiliar to you will help

you improve your scores. Longer-term survey courses will

be most helpful to you, because they aim to improve your

knowledge through sustained learning and practice.

ACT English Test

The ACT English Test is a 75-question, 45-minute test that

measures your understanding of the conventions of

standard written English (punctuation, grammar and usage,

and sentence structure) and of rhetorical skills (strategy,

organization, and style). Spelling, vocabulary, and rote

recall of rules of grammar are not tested. The test consists

of five essays, or passages, each of which is accompanied

by a sequence of multiple-choice test questions. Different

passage types are employed to provide a variety of

rhetorical situations. Passages are chosen not only for their

appro priateness in assessing writing skills but also to

reflect students’ interests and experiences.

Some questions refer to underlined portions of the passage

and offer several alternatives to the underlined portion. You

must decide which choice is most appropriate in the

context of the passage. Some questions ask about an

underlined portion, a section of the passage, or the

passage as a whole. You must decide which choice best

answers the question posed. Many questions offer “NO

CHANGE” to the passage as one of the choices. The

uestions are numbered consecutively. Each question

number refers to a correspondingly numbered portion

underlined in the passage or to a corresponding numeral in

a box located at the appropriate point in the passage.

Three scores are reported for the ACT English Test: a total

test score based on all 75 questions, a subscore in

sage/Mechanics based on 40 questions, and a subscore

in Rhetorical Skills based on 35 questions.

Tips for Taking the ACT English Test

Pace yourself.

The ACT English Test contains 75 questions to be completed

in 45 minutes. If you spend 1

⁄2 minutes skimming through

each passage before responding to the questions, then you

will have 30 seconds to answer each question. If possible,

spend less time on each question and use the remaining time

allowed for this test to review your work and return to the

questions on this test that were most difficult for you.

Be aware of the writing style used in each passage.

The five passages cover a variety of topics and are written in

a variety of styles. It is important that you take into account

the writing style used in each passage when you respond to

the questions. In responding to a question, be sure to

understand the context of the question. Consider how the

sentence containing an underlined portion fits in with the

surrounding sentences and into the passage as a whole.

Examine the underlined portions of the passage.

Before responding to a question with an underlined portion,

carefully examine what is underlined in the text. Consider

the elements of writing that are included in each underlined

portion. Some questions will ask you to base your decision

on some specific element of writing, such as the tone or

emphasis the text should convey. Some questions will ask

you to choose the alternative to the underlined portion that

is NOT or LEAST acceptable. The answer choices for each

question will contain changes in one or more of those

elements of writing.

Be aware of questions with no underlined portions.

You will be asked some questions about a section of the

passage or about the passage as a whole, in light of a

given rhetorical situation. Questions of this type are often

identified by a question number in a box located at the

appropriate point in the passage. Questions about the

entire passage are placed at the end of the passage and

introduced by a horizontal box enclosing the following

instruction: “Questions ___ and ___ ask about the

preceding passage as a whole.”

Note the differences in the answer choices.

Many of the questions in the test will involve more than one

aspect of writing. Examine each answer choice and how it

differs from the others. Be careful not to select an answer

that corrects one error but causes a different error.

etermine the best answer.

Two approaches can be taken to determine the best answer

to a question in which you are to choose the best alternative

to an underlined portion. In the first approach, you can

reread the sentence or sentences, substituting each of the

possible answer choices for the underlined portion to

determine the best choice. In the second approach, you can

decide how the underlined portion might best be phrased in

tandard written English or in terms of the particular question

posed. If you think the underlined portion is the best answer,

you should select “NO CHANGE.” If not, you should check to

see whether your phrasing is one of the other answer

choices. If you do not find your phrasing, you should choose

the best of the answers presented. For questions cued by a

number in a box, you must decide which choice is most

appropriate in terms of the question posed or the stated

rhetorical situation.

Reread the sentence, using your selected answer.

Once you have selected the answer you feel is best, reread

the corresponding sentence(s) of the passage, inserting

your selected answer at the appropriate place in the text to

make sure it is the best answer within the context of the

passage.

Content Covered by the ACT English Test

Six elements of effective writing are included in the English

Test: punctuation, grammar and usage, sentence structure,

strategy, organization, and style. The questions covering

punctuation, grammar and usage, and sentence structure

make up the Usage/Mechanics subscore. The questions

covering strat egy, organization, and style make up the

Rhetorical Skills subscore. A brief description and the

approximate percentage of the test devoted to each

element of effective writing are given below.

USAGE/MECHANICS

Punctuation (10–15%). Questions in this category test your

knowledge of the conventions of internal and end-of-

sentence punctuation, with emphasis on the relationship of

punctuation to meaning (for example, avoiding ambiguity,

indicating appositives).

Grammar and Usage (15–20%). Questions in this cate gory

test your understanding of agreement between subject and

verb, between pronoun and antecedent, and between

modifiers and the word modified; verb formation; pronoun

case; formation of comparative and superlative adjectives

and adverbs; and idiomatic usage.

Sentence Structure (20–25%). Questions in this category

test your understanding of relationships between

and among clauses, placement of modifiers, and shifts in

construction.

RHETORICAL SKILLS

Strategy (15–20%). Questions in this category test how well

you develop a given topic by choosing expressions

appropriate to an essay’s audience and purpose; judging

the effect of adding, revising, or deleting supporting

material; and judging the relevancy of statements in

context.

Organization (10–15%). Questions in this category test how

well you organize ideas and choose effective opening,

transitional, and closing sentences.

Style (15–20%). Questions in this category test how well

you choose precise and appropriate words and images,

aintain the level of style and tone in an essay, manage

sentence elements for rhetorical effectiveness, and avoid

ambiguous pronoun references, wordiness, and

redundancy.

ACT Mathematics Test

You may use a calculator on the Mathematics Test.

ee www.actstudent.org for details about prohibited

models and features.

The ACT Mathematics Test is a 60-question, 60-minute test

designed to assess the mathematical skills students have

typically acquired in courses taken up to the beginning of

grade 12. The test presents multiple-choice questions that

require you to use reasoning skills to solve practical

problems in mathematics. Most questions are self-

contained. Some questions may belong to a set of several

questions (e.g., several questions about the same graph or

chart). Knowledge of basic formulas and computational

skills are assumed as background for the problems, but

recall of complex formulas and extensive computation is

not required. The material covered on the test emphasizes

the major content areas that are prerequisites to successful

performance in entry-level courses in college mathematics.

Four scores are reported for the ACT Mathematics Test: a

total test score based on all 60 questions, a subscore in

Pre-Algebra/Elementary Algebra based on 24 questions, a

subscore in Intermediate Algebra/Coordinate Geometry

based on 18 questions, and a subscore in Plane

Geometry/Trigonometry based on 18 questions.

Tips for Taking the ACT Mathematics Test

Pace yourself.

The ACT Mathematics Test contains 60 questions to be

completed in 60 minutes. You have an average of 1 minute

per question. If possible, spend less time on each question

and use the remaining time allowed for this test to review

your work and return to the questions on this test that were

most difficult for you.

If you use a calculator, use it wisely.

All of the mathematics problems can be solved without

using a calculator. Many of the problems are best done

without a calculator. Use good judgment in deciding when,

and when not, to use a calculator. For example, for some

problems you may wish to do scratch work to clarify your

thoughts on the question before you begin using a

calculator to do computations.

Solve the problem.

For working out the solutions to the problems, you will

usually do scratch work in the space provided in the test

booklet. You may wish to glance over the answer choices

after reading the questions. However, working backwards

from the answer choices provided can take a lot of time

and may not be effective.

ocate your solution among the answer choices.

Once you have solved the problem, look for your answer

among the choices. If your answer is not included among

the choices, carefully reread the problem to see whether

ou missed important information. Pay careful attention to

the question being asked. If an equation is to be selected,

check to see whether the equation you think is best can be

transformed into one of the answer choices provided.

Make sure you answer the question.

The solutions to many questions on the test will involve

several steps. Make sure your answer accounts for all the

necessary steps. Frequently, questions include answer

choices that are based on incomplete solutions.

Make sure your answer is reasonable.

Sometimes an error in computation will result in an answer

that is not practically possible for the situation described.

Always think about your answer to determine whether it is

reasonable.

Check your work.

You may arrive at an incorrect solution by making common

errors in the problem-solving process. Thus, if there is time

remaining before the end of the Mathematics Test, it is

important that you reread the questions and check your

answers to make sure they are correct.

Content Covered by the ACT Mathematics Test

Six content areas are included in the Mathematics Test: pre-

algebra, elementary algebra, intermediate algebra,

coordinate geometry, plane geometry, and trigonometry. The

questions covering pre-algebra and elementary algebra

make up the Pre-Algebra/Elementary Algebra subscore. The

questions covering intermediate algebra and coordinate

geometry make up the Intermediate Algebra/Coordinate

Geometry subscore. The questions covering plane geometry

and trigonometry make up the Plane Geometry/Trigonometry

subscore. A brief description and the approximate

percentage of the test devoted to each content area are

given below.

PRE-ALGEBRA/ELEMENTARY ALGEBRA

Pre-Algebra (20–25%). Questions in this content area are

based on basic operations using whole numbers, decimals,

fractions, and integers; place value; square roots and

approximations; the concept of exponents; scientific notation;

factors; ratio, proportion, and percent; linear equations in one

variable; absolute value and ordering numbers by value;

elementary counting techniques and simple proba bility; data

collection, representation, and interpretation;

and understanding simple descriptive statistics.

Elementary Algebra (15–20%). Questions in this content area

are based on properties of exponents and square roots,

evaluation of algebraic expressions through substitution,

using variables to express functional relationships,

understanding algebraic operations, and the solution of

quadratic equations by factoring.

INTERMEDIATE ALGEBRA/COORDINATE GEOMETRY

Intermediate Algebra (15–20%). Questions in this content

area are based on an understanding of the quadratic formula,

rational and radical expressions, absolute value equations

nd inequalities, sequences and patterns, systems of

equations, quadratic inequalities, functions, modeling,

matrices, roots of polynomials, and complex numbers.

Coordinate Geometry (15–20%). Questions in this content

area are based on graphing and the relations between

equations and graphs, including points, lines, polynomials,

ircles, and other curves; graphing inequalities; slope;

parallel and perpendicular lines; distance; midpoints; and

conics.

PLANE GEOMETRY/TRIGONOMETRY

Plane Geometry (20–25%). Questions in this content area

are based on the properties and relations of plane figures,

including angles and relations among perpendicular and

parallel lines; properties of circles, triangles, rectangles,

parallelograms, and trapezoids; transformations; the

concept of proof and proof techniques; volume; and

applications of geometry to three dimensions.

Trigonometry (5–10%). Questions in this content area are

based on understanding trigonometric relations in right

triangles; values and properties of trigonometric functions;

graphing trigonometric functions; modeling using

trigonometric functions; use of trigonometric identities; and

solving trigonometric equations.

ACT Reading Test

The ACT Reading Test is a 40-question, 35-minute test

that measures your reading comprehension. The test

questions ask you to derive meaning from several texts by

(1) referring to what is explicitly stated and (2) reasoning to

determine implicit meanings. Specifically, questions will

ask you to use referring and reasoning skills to determine

main ideas; locate and interpret significant details;

understand sequences of events; make comparisons;

comprehend cause-effect relationships; determine the

meaning of context-dependent words, phrases, and

statements; draw generalizations; and analyze the author’s

or narrator’s voice and method. The test comprises four

sections, each containing one long or two shorter prose

passages that are representative of the level and kinds of

text commonly encountered in first-year college curricula.

Each passage is preceded by a heading that identifies

what type of passage it is (for example, “Literary

Narrative”), names the author, and may include a brief note

that helps in understanding the passage. Each section

contains a set of multiple-choice test questions. These

questions do not test the rote recall of facts from outside

the passage, isolated vocabulary items, or rules of formal

logic. In sections that contain two short passages, some of

the questions involve both of the passages in the section.

For an example of a section with two short prose

passages, visit www.actstudent.org/sampletest.

Three scores are reported for the ACT Reading Test: a total

test score based on all 40 questions, a subscore in Social

Studies/Sciences reading skills (based on the 20 questions

on the social studies and natural sciences passages), and a

subscore in Arts/Literature reading skills (based on the 20

questions on the literary narrative and humanities passages).

Tips for Taking the ACT Reading Test

Pace yourself.

The ACT Reading Test contains 40 questions to be

completed in 35 minutes. If you spend 2–3 minutes reading

the passage(s) in each section, then you will have about

5 seconds to answer each question. If possible, spend

less time on the passages and the questions and use the

remaining time allowed for this test to review your work and

return to the questions on this test that were most difficult

for you.

Read each passage carefully.

Before you begin answering a question, read the entire

passage (or two short passages) carefully. Be conscious

of relationships between or among ideas. You may make

notes in the test booklet about important ideas in the passages.

Refer to the passages when answering the questions.

Answers to some of the questions will be found by referring

to what is explicitly stated in the text. Other questions will

require you to determine implicit meanings and to draw

conclusions, comparisons, and generalizations. Consider

the text before you answer any question.

Content Covered by the ACT Reading Test

The Reading Test is based on four types of reading

selections: the social studies, the natural sciences,

literary narrative, and the humanities. A subscore in Social

Studies/Sciences reading skills is based on the questions

on the social studies and the natural sciences passages,

and a subscore in Arts/Literature reading skills is based

on the questions on the literary narrative and humanities

passages. A brief description and the approximate

percentage of the test devoted to each type of reading

selection are given below.

Social Studies (25%). Questions in this category are based

on passages in the content areas of anthropology,

archaeology, biography, business, economics, education,

geography, history, political science, psychology, and

sociology.

Natural Sciences (25%). Questions in this category are

based on passages in the content areas of anatomy,

astronomy, biology, botany, chemistry, ecology, geology,

medicine, meteorology, microbiology, natural history,

physiology, physics, technology, and zoology.

Literary Narrative (25%) or Prose Fiction (25%). Questions in

the Literary Narrative category are based on passages from

short stories, novels, memoirs, and personal essays.

Questions in the Prose Fiction category are based on

passages from short stories and novels.

Humanities (25%). Questions in this category are based on

passages in the content areas of architecture, art, dance,

ethics, film, language, literary criticism, music, philosophy,

radio, television, and theater. Questions may be based on

passages from memoirs and personal essays.

ACT Science Test

he ACT Science Test is a 40-question, 35-minute test that

measures the interpretation, analysis, evaluation, reasoning,

and problem-solving skills required in the natural sciences.

The test presents several sets of scientific information, each

followed by a number of multiple-choice test questions. The

scientific information is conveyed in one of three different

formats: data representation (graphs, tables, and other

chematic forms), research summaries (descriptions of

several related experiments), or conflicting viewpoints

(expressions of several related hypotheses or views that

are inconsistent with one another). The questions require

you to recognize and understand the basic features of, and

concepts related to, the provided information; to examine

critically the relationship between the information provided

and the conclusions drawn or hypotheses developed; and

to generalize from given information to gain new

information, draw conclusions, or make predictions.

You are not permitted to use a calculator on the ACT

Science Test.

One score is reported for the ACT Science Test: a total test

score based on all 40 questions.

Tips for Taking the ACT Science Test

Pace yourself.

The ACT Science Test contains 40 questions to be

completed in 35 minutes. If you spend about 2 minutes

reading each passage, then you will have about 30 seconds

to answer each question. If possible, spend less time on the

passages and the questions and use the remaining time

allowed for this test to review your work and return to the

questions on this test that were most difficult for you.

Read the passage carefully.

Before you begin answering a question, read the scientific

material provided. It is important that you read the entire text

and examine any tables, graphs, or figures. You may want

to make notes about important ideas in the information

provided in the test booklet. Some of the information sets

will describe experiments. You should consider the

experimental design, including the controls and variables,

because questions are likely to address this component of

scientific research.

Note different viewpoints in passages.

Some material will present conflicting points of view, and

the questions will ask you to distinguish among the various

viewpoints. It may be helpful for you to make notes

summarizing each viewpoint next to that section in the test

booklet.

Content Covered by the ACT Science Test

The content of the Science Test includes biology,

chemistry, physics, and the Earth/space sciences (for

example, geology, astronomy, and meteorology).

Advanced knowledge in these subjects is not required, but

knowledge acquired in general, introductory science

courses is needed to answer some of the questions. The

test emphasizes scientific reasoning skills over recall of

scientific content, skill in mathematics, or reading ability.

The scientific information is conveyed in one of three

different formats.

Data Representation (30–40%). This format presents

graphic and tabular material similar to that found in science

journals and texts. The questions associated with this

format measure skills such as graph reading, interpretation

of scatter plots, and interpretation of information presented

n tables.

Research Summaries (45–55%). This format provides

descriptions of one or more related experiments. The

questions focus upon the design of experiments and the

interpretation of experimental results.

Conflicting Viewpoints (15–20%). This format presents

expressions of several hypotheses or views that, being

based on differing premises or on incomplete data, are

inconsistent with one another. The questions focus upon

the understanding, analysis, and comparison of alternative

viewpoints or hypotheses.

ACT Writing Test (Optional)

If you register for the ACT Plus Writing, you will take the

ACT Writing Test (which must be completed in English)

after you complete the four multiple-choice tests. Taking

the Writing Test will not affect your scores on the multiple-

choice tests or your Composite score. Rather, you will

receive two additional scores: a Combined English/Writing

score on a scale of 1 through 36 and a Writing subscore on

a scale of 2 through 12. You will also receive some

comments on your essay.

The ACT Writing Test is a 30-minute essay test that

measures your writing skills—specifically those writing

skills emphasized in high school English classes and in

entry-level college composition courses. The test consists

of one writing prompt that will define an issue and describe

two points of view on that issue. You are asked to write in

response to a question about your position on the issue

described in the writing prompt. You may adopt either of

the perspectives described in the prompt, or present your

own point of view on the issue. Your score will not be

affected by the point of view you take on the issue.

Your essay will be evaluated on the evidence it gives of

your ability to do the following:

• express judgments by taking a position on the issue in

the writing prompt;

• maintain a focus on the topic throughout the essay;

• develop a position by using logical reasoning and by

supporting your ideas;

• organize ideas in a logical way; and

• use language clearly and effectively according to the

conventions of standard written English.

Your essay will be scored holistically—that is, on the basis

of the overall impression created by all the elements of the

writing. Two trained readers will score your essay, each

giving it a rating from 1 (low) to 6 (high). The sum of those

ratings is your Writing subscore. If the readers’ ratings

disagree by more than one point, a third reader will

evaluate your essay and resolve the discrepancy.

ips for Taking the ACT Writing Test

ace yourself.

The ACT Writing Test gives you 30 minutes to read and

think about the issue in the prompt, and to plan and write

your essay. When asked to write a timed essay, most

writers find it useful to do some planning before they write

the essay, and to do a final check of the essay when it is

finished. It is unlikely that you will have time to draft, revise,

and recopy your essay.

Prewrite.

Before writing, carefully consider the prompt and make

sure you understand it—reread it if you aren’t sure. Decide

how you want to answer the question in the prompt. Then

jot down your ideas on the topic and how you will explain

your point of view on the issue. Write down what you think

others might say in opposition to your point of view and

what you would say in reply. Think of how to organize your

essay. Do your prewriting in your Writing Test booklet.

Write.

At the beginning of your essay, make sure readers will see

that you understand the issue. Explain your point of view in

a clear and logical way. Discuss the issue in a broader

context or evaluate the implications of the issue. Address

what others might say in opposition and present a

counterargument. Use specific examples. Vary the

structure of your sentences, and use interesting and

precise word choices. Stay on topic and end with a strong

conclusion.

Review your essay.

Take a few minutes before time is called to read over your

essay. Correct any mistakes. If you find any words that are

hard to read, recopy them. Make corrections and revisions

neatly, between the lines. Do not write in the margins. Your

readers know you had only 30 minutes to compose and

write your essay. Within that time limit, try to make your

essay as polished as you can.

Practice.

There are many ways to prepare for the ACT Writing

Test. These include reading newspapers and magazines,

listening to news analyses on television or radio, and

participating in discussions and debates.

One of the best ways to prepare for the ACT Writing Test is

to practice writing with different purposes for different

audiences. The writing you do in your classes will help you.

So will writing essays, stories, editorials, a personal journal,

or other writing you do on your own.

It is also a good idea to practice writing within a time limit.

Taking the practice ACT Writing Test will give you a sense

of how much additional practice you may need. You might

want to take the practice ACT Writing Test even if you do

not plan to take the ACT Plus Writing, because this will help

build skills that are important in college-level learning and

in the world of work.

What to Expect

on Test Day

Reporting Time

For National and International Test Dates, you must report

to the test center by the time stated on your ticket, normally

:00 a.m. If you are late, you will not be admitted to test. If

your ticket does not list a specific room, test center staff or

posted signs will direct you.

Requirements for Admission

At check-in, you will be required to show both your

paper ticket and acceptable photo ID or you will not be

admitted to test. See ID requirements on your ticket or

at www.actstudent.org.

In the Test Room

• The supervisor or proctor will direct you to a seat. If

you need a left-handed desk, tell your supervisor as

you enter.

• Do not leave the test room after you have been admitted.

• Only pencils, erasers, a permitted calculator, and your

ticket will be allowed on your desk.

• You will be required to put all other personal

belongings away.

• You are not allowed to have scratch paper, books,

dictionaries, notes or other aids, highlighters, colored

pens or pencils, mechanical pencils, ink pens,

correction fluid, reading material, or any electronic

devices other than a permitted calculator.

• You may not use tobacco in any form or have food or

drink (including water) in the test room. You may have

snacks and drinks outside the test room during break.

• Testing will begin as soon as all examinees present at

8:00 a.m. are checked in and seated.

• Listen carefully to all directions read by your supervisor.

• It is important that you follow all directions carefully.

• On some test dates, ACT tries out questions to develop

future versions of the tests. You may be asked to take a

fifth test, the results of which will not be reflected in your

reported scores. The fifth test could be multiple-choice

or one for which you will create your own answers.

Please try your best on these questions, because your

participation can help shape the future of the ACT. If

you are in a test room where the fifth test is

administered, you will be dismissed at about 12:35 p.m.

Prohibited Behavior at the Test

Center

The following behaviors are prohibited. You will be

dismissed and your answer document will not be scored if

you are found:

• Filling in or altering ovals on a test section or continuing

to write the essay after time has been called on that test

section. This means that you cannot make any changes

to a test section outside of the designated time for that

section, even to fix a stray mark.

• Looking back at a test section on which time has

already been called.

• Looking ahead in the test booklet.

• Looking at another person’s test booklet or answer

document.

• Giving or receiving assistance by any means.

• Using a prohibited calculator.

• Using a calculator on any test section other than

Mathematics.

• Sharing a calculator with another person.

• Using any device at any time during testing or during

reak other than an approved calculator, an approved

accommodation device, or an assistive device that does

not require approval, such as a hearing aid. All other

electronic devices, including cell phones and wearable

devices, must be turned off and placed out of reach

from the time you are admitted to test until you are

dismissed after testing concludes. This includes

assistive devices for which reasonable alternatives are

available. For example, if you need glasses, use glasses

that do not have electronics attached or built in.

• Attempting to remove test materials, including

questions or answers, from the test room in any way,

including in the memory of a calculator.

• Using highlight pens, colored pens or pencils, notes,

scratch paper, dictionaries, or other aids.

• Not following instructions or abiding by the rules of the

test center.

• Exhibiting confrontational, threatening, or unruly

behavior; or violating any laws.

• Allowing an alarm to sound in the test room or creating

any other disturbance.

All items brought into the test center, such as hats, purses,

backpacks, cell phones, calculators, and other electronic

devices may be searched at the discretion of ACT and its

testing staff. ACT and its testing staff may confiscate and

retain for a reasonable period of time any item suspected

of having been used, or being capable of being used, in

violation of this list of prohibited behaviors. ACT may also

provide such items to third parties in connection with ACT’s

investigation or the investigation of others. ACT and its

testing staff shall not be responsible for lost, stolen, or

damaged items.

Voiding Your Answer Documents

on Test Day

If you have to leave the test center before completing all

your tests, you must decide whether or not you want your

answer document scored and inform your supervisor of

your decision. If you do not, your answer document will

be scored.

Once you break the seal on your multiple-choice test

booklet, you cannot request a Test Date Change. If you do

not complete all your tests and want to test again, you will

have to pay the full fee for your test option again. If you

want to take the ACT again, see www.actstudent.org for

your options. Once you begin filling out your answer

document, you cannot change from ACT Plus Writing to

the ACT No Writing or the reverse.

Testing More Than Once

ou may not receive scores from more than one test taken

during a scheduled national or international test date. For

example, you may test on Saturday or on an authorized

non-Saturday date or on a rescheduled test date—but not

on more than one of those days. If you are admitted and

allowed to test a second time, we will report only the scores

from the first test. The second set of scores will be

cancelled without refund.

Test Information Release

On certain national test dates, if you test at a national test

center, you may order (for an additional fee) a copy of the test

questions, a copy of your answers, a list of correct answers,

and scoring instructions. This service is not available for all

test dates or for other testing programs (e.g., International,

State and District, Special). If you want to request and pay for

this service, check www.actstudent.org to see which test

dates offer this service.

4Taking the Practice Tests

Take the practice tests under conditions as similar as

possible to those you will experience on test day. The

following tips will help you:

• The four multiple-choice tests require 2 hours and

55 minutes. Take them in order in one sitting, with a

10- to 15-minute break between Tests 2 and 3.

• You will need only sharpened No. 2 pencils with good

erasers. Remove all other items from your desk. You will

not be allowed to use scratch paper.

• If you plan to use a permitted calculator on the

Mathematics Test, use the same one you will use on

test day.

• Use a digital timer or clock to time yourself on each

practice test. Set your timer for five minutes less than

the time allowed for each test so you can get used to

the verbal announcement of five minutes remaining.

• Give yourself only the time allowed for each test.

• Detach and use the sample multiple-choice answer

document on pages 63–64.

• Read the test directions on the first page of the practice

multiple-choice tests. These are the same directions

that will appear on your test booklet on test day.

• Start your timer and begin with Test 1. Continue through

Test 4, taking a 10- to 15-minute break between Tests 2

and 3. If you do not plan to take the ACT Plus Writing,

score your multiple-choice tests using the information

beginning on page 54.

• If you plan to take the ACT Plus Writing, read the

directions on the first page of the practice ACT Writing

Test (page 53). These are the same directions that will

appear on your test booklet on test day. Start your

timer, then read the prompt on page 54. After you

understand what the prompt is asking you to do, plan

your essay and then write it on lined paper. (On test

day, your answer document will have lined pages for

you to write your essay.) Score your essay using the

information on pages 61–62.

Practice Multiple-Choice Tests

Form 1267C

This booklet contains tests in English, Mathematics,

Reading, and Science. These tests measure skills and

abilities highly related to high school course work and

success in college. CALCULATORS MAY BE USED ON

THE MATHEMATICS TEST ONLY.

The questions in each test are numbered, and the

suggested answers for each question are lettered. On the

answer document, the rows of ovals are numbered to

match the questions, and the ovals in each row are

lettered to correspond to the suggested answers.

For each question, first decide which answer is best.

Next, locate on the answer document the row of ovals

numbered the same as the question. Then, locate the oval

in that row lettered the same as your answer. Finally, fill

in the oval completely. Use a soft lead pencil and make

your marks heavy and black. DO NOT USE INK OR A

MECHANICAL PENCIL.

Mark only one answer to each question. If you change

your mind about an answer, erase your first mark

thoroughly before marking your new answer. For each

question, make certain that you mark in the row of ovals

with the same number as the question.

Only responses marked on your answer document will

be scored. Your score on each test will be based only on

the number of questions you answer correctly during the

time allowed for that test. You will NOT be penalized for

guessing. IT IS TO YOUR ADVANTAGE TO ANSWER

EVERY QUESTION EVEN IF YOU MUST GUESS.

You may work on each test ONLY when your test

supervisor tells you to do so. If you finish a test before

time is called for that test, you should use the time

remaining to reconsider questions you are uncertain

about in that test. You may NOT look back to a test on

which time has already been called, and you may NOT go

ahead to another test. To do so will disqualify you from

the examination.

Lay your pencil down immediately when time is called

at the end of each test. You may NOT for any reason fill

in or alter ovals for a test after time is called for that test.

To do so will disqualify you from the examination.

Do not fold or tear the pages of your test booklet.

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET

UNTIL TOLD TO DO SO.

Directions

NOTE: This test material is the confidential copyrighted property of

ACT, Inc., and may not be copied, reproduced, sold, or otherwise

transferred without the prior express written permission of ACT, Inc.

Violators of ACT’s copyrights are subject to civil and criminal penalties.

PO BOX 168

IOWA CITY, IA 52243-0168

EXAMINEE STATEMENT, CERTIFICATION, AND SIGNATURE

1. Read the following Statement: By opening this test booklet, I agree to comply with and be bound by

the Terms and Con ditions set forth in the ACT registration materials for this assessment, including

those concerning test security, arbitration, score cancellation, examinee remedies, and ACT’s Privacy

Policy available at www.act.org/privacy.html. I understand that ACT owns the test questions and

responses and affirm that I will not share any test questions or responses with anyone by any form of

communication before, during, or after the assessment administration. I understand that assuming

anyone else’s identity to take this test is strictly prohibited and may violate the law and subject me to

legal penalties.

2. Copy the Certification shown below (only the text in italics) on the lines provided. Write in your normal

handwriting.

ertification: I agree to the Statement above and certify that I am the person whose name appears

on this form.

3. Sign your name as you would any official document and enter today’s date.

Your Signature Today’s Date

2014

2015

PASSAGE I

Dragonfly

The nature trail is six feet wide and

seven miles long. It slithers through the forest like a

snake curving, and bending along the banks of the river.

The county cleared this path and paved it with packed

gravel, so they would have a peaceful place to hike and

bike.

I ride this trail nearly every day—not on a bike,

but on “Luigi.” That’s the nickname I gave my

motorized wheelchair. % Today, Luigi’s battery

1. A. NO CHANGE

B. snake, curving and bending

C. snake curving and bending,

D. snake, curving, and bending,

2. Which of the following alternatives to the underlined

portion would NOT be acceptable?

F. path, paving

G. path and then paved

H. path before paving

J. path paved

3. A. NO CHANGE

B. knowing they

C. that they

D. people

4. F. NO CHANGE

G. day; not on a bike

H. day not on a bike

J. day, not on a bike;

5. If the writer were to delete the preceding sentence, the

essay would primarily lose:

A. a reason why the narrator is in the forest.

B. a detail important for understanding the essay.

C. a contrast to the lighthearted tone of the essay.

D. nothing at all; this information is irrelevant to the

essay.

ENGLISH TEST

45 Minutes—75 Questions

DIRECTIONS: In the five passages that follow, certain

words and phrases are underlined and numbered. In

the right-hand column, you will find alternatives for the

underlined part. In most cases, you are to choose the

one that best expresses the idea, makes the statement

appropriate for standard written English, or is worded

most consistently with the style and tone of the passage

as a whole. If you think the original version is best,

choose “NO CHANGE.” In some cases, you will find in

the right-hand column a question about the underlined

part. You are to choose the best answer to the question.

You will also find questions about a section of the pas-

sage, or about the passage as a whole. These questions

do not refer to an underlined portion of the passage, but

rather are identified by a number or numbers in a box.

For each question, choose the alternative you consider

best and fill in the corresponding oval on your answer

document. Read each passage through once before you

begin to answer the questions that accompany it. For

many of the questions, you must read several sentences

beyond the question to determine the answer. Be sure

that you have read far enough ahead each time you

choose an alternative.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

ACT-67C-PRACTICE

is fully charged, I know I can go all the way to the end

of the trail and back. But I always carry a cell phone on

me just in case.

Luigi’s motor moves slowly as we venture along

the trail. I can hear the gravel quietly crunching beneath

Luigi’s rubber wheels. I hear the songs of cardinals in the

trees and the clamor of crickets in the grasses. I hear the

murmur of water slipping over time-smoothed rocks. It is

September, and some of the trees are starting to blush red

and orange at their tips. The wind ruffles my hair and

chills my face as I bounce gently, along in my padded

chair.

Bicyclists streak past in a blur of color and a cloud of

dust I don’t understand their hurry. Luigi can go fast, but I

like to ride slowly, to see like a hovering dragonfly. I want

to see everything that has changed, grown, bloomed, or

died since yesterday. Today I notice that a spider has

woven a web between some honeysuckle bushes by the

bridge. I see that the bank of vibrant yellow black-eyed

Susans by the barbed wire fence is starting to dry and fade

away. I spend an hour; looking and listening and learning.

6. F. NO CHANGE

G. charged, because of that,

H. charged, this means that

J. charged, so

7. Which choice would most logically and effectively

emphasize the positive, friendly attitude the narrator

has toward Luigi?

A. NO CHANGE

B. travels safely

C. proceeds carefully

D. purrs softly

8. F. NO CHANGE

G. You can hear

H. One can even hear

J. While hearing

9. A. NO CHANGE

B. Due to the fact that it is

C. It turns into the month of

D. Because it has turned into

10. F. NO CHANGE

G. gentle, along

H. gently along

J. gentle along,

11. Which choice most effectively leads into the new sub-

ject of this paragraph?

A. NO CHANGE

B. The sun begins to set

C. Nature always impresses me

D. Days can go by quickly

12. F. NO CHANGE

G. dust, however,

H. dust.

J. dust,

13. A. NO CHANGE

B. hour, looking,

C. hour looking;

D. hour looking

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

ACT-67C-PRACTICE

And now my ride is finished for today. I leave the

trail and come out into the open, manicured park at the

trails end. There, my older brother helps me out of my

chair and into his waiting van. He puts Luigi in the back,

and I return to the world of pavement, streetlights, and

traffic. But in my mind, I am still gliding through the

forest. I am like the water, flowing over ancient stones.

Inside, I am still a dragonfly.

PASSAGE II

Beneath the Streets of New York

At 2 p.m., on October 27, 1904; thousands of

New York City residents poured into the streets of

Manhattan. Their cheers competed with the blare of

ferryboat horns and the whistle of power plants. The

city was celebrating an incredible engineering feat; the

completion of the first section of the New York City

Subway. 2

14. F. NO CHANGE

G. trail’s

H. trails’

J. trails’s

15. Suppose the writer’s goal had been to write an essay

illustrating the pleasure that people can take in nature.

Would this essay accomplish that goal?

A. Yes, because it focuses on a variety of wildflowers

that the narrator enjoys.

B. Yes, because it focuses on the narrator’s joy at

having access to nature.

C. No, because it describes the world of the city as

being more important to the narrator.

D. No, because it focuses primarily on the function-

ing of the narrator’s motorized wheelchair.

16. F. NO CHANGE

G. 2 p.m. on October 27, 1904, thousands

H. 2 p.m., on October 27, 1904; thousands,

J. 2 p.m. on October 27, 1904, thousands,

17. A. NO CHANGE

B. feat, over

C. feat:

D. feat

18. The writer is concerned about the level of detail in the

preceding sentence and is considering deleting the

phrase “the first section of” from it. If the writer were

to make this deletion, the paragraph would primarily

lose information that:

F. reveals how expansive the New York City Subway

would become.

G. clarifies that only part of the subway system had

been completed by October 27, 1904.

H. makes clear that by October 27, 1904, construction

of the second section of the subway was already

underway.

J. provides evidence that New York City residents at

this celebration believed the entire subway system

was complete.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

ACT-67C-PRACTICE

Question 15 asks about the preceding passage

as a whole.

The original subway line was 9.1 miles long and had

twenty-eight stations. [A] The first train took twenty-six

minutes to complete the route, which ran from City Hall

to West 145th Street in under a half an hour. Tens of

thousands of New Yorkers could now avoid traffic jams

by traveling underneath the streets. [B]

As early as 1865, there had been proposals for a

New York subway, but that took decades to resolve the

many political, financial, and technical challenges. The

engineer, William Barclay Parsons accepted responsibility

for overseeing this project.

Parsons decided that most of the subway tunnel

would be constructed using an innovation engineering

method known as “cut and cover.” [C] First, workers used

picks and shovels to remove roads and dig a deep trench.

After installing wooden braces to hold back the earth,

workers built a concrete floor. Tunnel walls were

created: with layers of brick, ceramic blocks, tar-soaked

felt for waterproofing, and concrete. The roof was made

from arch-shaped wooden molds also covered with

concrete. Next, track beds were filled with crushed stone,

and rails were secured to wooden ties. Finally, the roof was

covered with tar-soaked felt, and the roads were rebuilt.

19. A. NO CHANGE

B. in the completion of its route.

C. in twenty-six minutes.

D. DELETE the underlined portion and end the sen-

tence with a period.

20. Which choice would most effectively conclude the

sentence by indicating clearly how the subway system

could address the problem described in the first part of

the sentence?

F. NO CHANGE

G. traveling more effectively.

H. trying something new.

J. using a system.

21. A. NO CHANGE

B. it

C. those

D. DELETE the underlined portion.

22. F. NO CHANGE

G. engineer—William Barclay Parsons

H. engineer William Barclay Parsons,

J. engineer William Barclay Parsons

23. A. NO CHANGE

B. innovate engineer

C. innovative engineering

D. innovate engineering

24. F. NO CHANGE

G. into the ground deeply under where the roads had

previously been removed by them.

H. a trench far down below since it was necessary to

shovel deep into the earth in this method known as

“cut and cover.”

J. DELETE the underlined portion and end the sen-

tence with a period.

25. A. NO CHANGE

B. created, with

C. created with

D. created with:

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

ACT-67C-PRACTICE

Brightly lit stations welcomed the public, many

of them were skeptical of traveling underground. [D] It

didn’t take long for New Yorkers to adapt, however. The

day after the subway opened, one newspaper reported that

the riders were emerging from underground “having

finished what will be to them the daily routine of the

rest of their lives.” <

26. F. NO CHANGE

G. of whom

H. of who

J. DELETE the underlined portion.

27. A. NO CHANGE

B. therefore.

C. for instance.

D. that is.

28. The writer wishes to add a sentence that describes the

magnitude and expansiveness of the New York City

Subway system today. Given that all the following

statements are true, which one, if added here, would

most clearly and effectively accomplish the writer’s

goal?

F. Even today, for many New Yorkers that news -

paper’s account is right!

G. Today, riding a portion of the New York City

Subway’s 656 miles of mainline track is a daily

routine for more than 4 million people.

H. Today, the New York City Transit Authority con-

tinuously maintains two separate fleets of subway

cars.

J. Now, a typical New York City Subway waiting

platform ranges from 400 to 700 feet.

29. Upon reviewing the essay and finding that some infor-

mation has been left out, the writer composes the fol-

lowing sentence incorporating that information:

This technique, also known as “open excava-

tion,” became the standard for subway tunnel-

ing for nearly sixty years.

If the writer were to add this sentence to the essay, the

sentence would most logically be placed at Point:

A. A.

B. B.

C. C.

D. D.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

ACT-67C-PRACTICE

Question 29 asks about the preceding passage

as a whole.

PASSAGE III

Diego Rivera: The People’s Painter

In the 1920s, Mexican artist Diego Rivera

(1886–1957) practiced the art of painting frescoes, large

murals done on fresh plaster. Rivera’s frescoes appeared

on the outside walls of buildings in Mexico City, in plain

sight of any passerby. This brought art out of the elite

galleries by catering to the upper class and literally to the

public.

Rivera attracted for his belief controversy that the

working class should wield more political power. His

dominant artistic subject in his art was as expansive

than his frescoes: the role played by laborers in the past,

present, and future of humanity. One of his frescoes depict

a progression through time and can be read as time lines

from left to right. For example, on the left side of a fresco,

there might be field workers hunched over in fatigue and

surrounded by the tools of their trade. On the right side,

after they have moved through history. The same workers

stand tall, radiating strength and confidence. Such

empowerment of the worker were to be the bright future

Rivera envisioned for all the workers of the world.

30. The writer wants to suggest that the art of the fresco

had been in decline previous to Rivera. Which choice

best accomplishes that goal?

F. NO CHANGE

G. engaged in

H. influenced

J. revived

31. A. NO CHANGE

B. that catered

C. while catering

D. and catered

32. F. NO CHANGE

G. Rivera should wield more political power for his

belief that controversy attracted the working class.

H. Rivera for his controversy attracted belief that the

working class should wield more political power.

J. Rivera attracted controversy for his belief that the

working class should wield more political power.

33. A. NO CHANGE

B. that he was interested in

C. that he focused on

D. DELETE the underlined portion.

34. F. NO CHANGE

G. then

H. as

J. if

35. A. NO CHANGE

B. Many

C. Each

D. Any one

36. F. NO CHANGE

G. history; the

H. history, the

J. history—the

37. A. NO CHANGE

B. if it were

C. was

D. if it was

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ACT-67C-PRACTICE

Rivera received various prestigious commissions

while he was in the United States. In the 1930s, he was

commissioned by the Ford Motor Company to paint

a twenty-seven-panel fresco in the Detroit Institute of Arts.

The fresco, Detroit Industry, portrays some of the varied

groups that shaped American culture and constituted its

workforce. The central panel on the north wall shows the

manufacture of a 1932 Ford V-8 engine, when the central

panel on the south wall shows the production of this same

car’s exterior. Smaller panels depicting workers in a

variety of other Detroit industries. J The fresco is a

dynamic work because, by capturing the energy, humanity,

and collective achievement of the Detroit workers,

celebrates all working men and women. However, Rivera

considered it the greatest achievement of his career.

38. F. NO CHANGE

G. various, prestigious,

H. various, and prestigious

J. various and prestigious,

39. If the underlined phrase were deleted, the sentence

would primarily lose a detail that:

A. repeats information found elsewhere in the

sentence.

B. is necessary for the sentence to be grammatically

complete.

C. provides new and relevant information to the

sentence.

D. is ambiguous and unnecessary to the sentence.

40. F. NO CHANGE

G. since

H. thus

J. and

41. A. NO CHANGE

B. depict

C. depicting some

D. had depicted

42. The writer is thinking of adding the following phrase

to the end of the preceding sentence (changing the

period after industries to a comma):

such as medicine, pharmaceuticals, and

chemicals.

Should the writer make this addition there?

F. Yes, because it offers relevant examples that help

to specify a broad term.

G. Yes, because it helps explain how the panels were

physically constructed.

H. No, because it provides a sampling of industries

rather than a full listing.

J. No, because it digresses from the main point of the

sentence.

43. A. NO CHANGE

B. that,

C. while,

D. that was,

44. F. NO CHANGE

G. Despite this,

H. Regardless,

J. DELETE the underlined portion.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

ACT-67C-PRACTICE

PASSAGE IV

After All These Years

[1]

[1] I met Joan, the person who would be my best

friend for the next twenty years, the first morning I played

outside my family’s new California home. [2] I was five

years old. [3] We became inseparable childhood friends,

and we remained close, even though we attended different

high schools and colleges.

[2]

Joan enjoyed jogging and painting cityscapes. I loved

hiking trips and writing. We shared an appreciation of the

outdoors and a passion for our creative work. More

importantly though we enjoyed being together. Through

our history of shared experiences, we formed a rare

understanding of each other.

[3]

[1] Last February, I had to travel to Fairbanks,

Alaska, for my work. [2] Though we had rarely spoken

to each other in fifteen years, when I called Joan to

suggest a meeting, her voice sounded wonderfully familiar.

45. A. NO CHANGE

B. close, yet even

C. close; even

D. close. Even

46. Which of the following alternatives to the underlined

portion would NOT be acceptable?

F. cityscapes, while I

G. cityscapes; I

H. cityscapes. I, on the other hand,

J. cityscapes I

47. A. NO CHANGE

B. important though

C. importantly, though,

D. important, though

48. Which choice would best express the narrator’s posi-

tive reaction to speaking with Joan and the narrator’s

fondness for her friend?

F. NO CHANGE

G. she said that she would rearrange her schedule so

that we could meet.

H. she told me that she immediately recognized my

voice.

J. her quick words and the sound of her laugh sur-

prised me.

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ACT-67C-PRACTICE

[3] Through my parents, whom were still in touch with

Joan’s father, I learned that Joan was currently living in

Fairbanks. S

[4]

I parked my rental car in downtown Fairbanks,

and to keep the battery from freezing, I plugged the

engine into an electrical outlet in the parking lot

so the battery would stay warm. It was twenty below

zero that afternoon, and the sky shone with a pale gray

light. V I called Joan from a pay phone. She soon met

me on a street corner that was close to her art studio.

[5]

As we walked upstairs to her studio,

we slipped into our familiar habits, talking about

the people in our lives and our work. We talked just

as easily as we had in the past, when we would sit

in the field behind Joan’s house atop the rabbit hutch

and discuss our friends and our hopes for the future.

49. A. NO CHANGE

B. who

C. whose

D. which

50. F. NO CHANGE

G. we

H. they

J. he

51. Which of the following sequences of sentences makes

Paragraph 3 most logical?

A. NO CHANGE

B. 1, 3, 2

C. 2, 1, 3

D. 3, 2, 1

52. F. NO CHANGE

G. located in the downtown area of the city.

H. so the battery would continue to work properly

despite the cold weather.

J. DELETE the underlined portion and end the sen-

tence with a period.

53. Which of the following alternatives to the underlined

portion would NOT be acceptable?

A. was glowing

B. glowed

C. shined

D. shoned

54. If the writer were to delete the preceding sentence, the

essay would primarily lose:

F. an indication of the narrator’s response to the

weather conditions in Fairbanks.

G. a detailed analysis of why the narrator had to plug

the car engine into an electrical outlet.

H. descriptive details that help set the scene of the

narrator’s meeting with Joan.

J. unnecessary details that repeat information given

earlier in the paragraph.

55. A. NO CHANGE

B. fell upon

C. dropped by

D. returned with

56. F. NO CHANGE

G. in the field atop the rabbit hutch behind Joan’s

house

H. atop the rabbit hutch in the field behind Joan’s

house

J. behind Joan’s house in the field atop the rabbit

hutch

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ACT-67C-PRACTICE

[6]

When I saw Joan’s new paintings, I immediately

remembered her distinct way of emphasizing shadows and

light. I remembered everything about her: how she would

get so absorbed in her work that she’d forget to eat, how

she disliked talking in the morning, how she was firm in

her decisions. The years of separation had not affected the

heart of our connection, our friendship.

57. Which of the following alternatives to the underlined

portion would NOT be acceptable?

A. engrossed in

B. acquired by

C. immersed in

D. engaged in

58. Which of the following alternatives to the underlined

portion would NOT be acceptable?

F. with

G. regarding

H. along

J. about

59. Given that all the choices are true, which one would

best conclude this essay by effectively summarizing its

main idea?

A. NO CHANGE

B. Sadly, I realized that although we might be able to

meet once a year, Joan and I would probably never

again live in the same city.

C. Even though we had followed different interests, I

was glad to know that both Joan and I had been

able to devote time to our creative work.

D. As a result of the time we spent together when we

were very young, I’ll always remember Joan.

60. Upon reviewing the essay and finding that some infor-

mation has been left out, the writer composes the fol-

lowing sentence incorporating that information:

Yet, despite such strong ties, we moved far

apart as adults and lost touch.

This sentence would most logically be placed:

F. after Sentence 2 in Paragraph 1.

G. at the end of Paragraph 2.

H. at the end of Paragraph 4.

J. after the first sentence in Paragraph 6.

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ACT-67C-PRACTICE

Question 60 asks about the preceding passage

as a whole.

PASSAGE V

Three Stars, Many Stories

Many thousands of years ago, people around the

world began attaching different stories to the stars in the

night sky. The Sun sets gradually the images of a winged

horse, a drinking gourd, a heartbroken hero appear in

lights overhead. In some cases, a pattern of stars may

represent a simple object that has meaning in day-to-day

life. In other cases, the pattern, or constellation, may be

a figure with a different kind of meaning.

Three bright stars that I’ve read about have acquired

significance for many viewers around the globe. In some

agricultural parts of Japan, for instance, these three stars

are commonly referred to as Karasuki and represent a

three-pronged plow. It’s awesome that in other parts of

Japan, the same three stars appear in a constellation

61. A. NO CHANGE

B. stories, which they connected to

C. stories, to which they related to

D. stories because of

62. F. NO CHANGE

G. sets, gradually,

H. sets, and gradually

J. setting gradually

63. A. NO CHANGE

B. pattern, or constellation

C. pattern or constellation,

D. pattern or constellation:

64. Given that all the choices are true, which one ends this

paragraph with the clearest allusion to Orion, as the

constellation is described later in the essay?

F. NO CHANGE

G. that is interesting but hard to see without a

telescope.

H. who plays a dramatic role in a myth that has been

told and retold for centuries.

J. that is also represented in the night sky once the

Sun has set and the stars emerge.

65. Given that all the choices are true, which one offers

visual information about the stars as they appear in

modern times?

A. NO CHANGE

B. have different names in different cultures

C. formed long before any of us were born

D. together roughly form a straight line

66. Which of the following alternatives to the underlined

portion would NOT be acceptable?

F. observers

G. overseers

H. night-sky watchers

J. stargazers

67. Given that all the choices are true, which one provides

a detail that has the most direct connection to the

information that follows in this sentence?

A. NO CHANGE

B. distant

C. populated

D. historic

68. F. NO CHANGE

G. You’ll be amazed to learn that in

H. Consider, if you will, the notion that in

J. In

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ACT-67C-PRACTICE

representing the floor-length sleeve of a woman’s kimono.

In still other parts of Japan, this shining trio appears in the

center of an hourglass-shaped drum, a tsuzumi.

On the other side of the world, the same

three stars has traditionally represented three

zebras to the Namaqua people of South Africa. In

the mythology, of the Tswana people of South Africa,

these same stars represent three pigs.

[1] Orion is the name many Westerners use for a

constellation that contains these three stars. [2] In Greek

mythology, Orion is a mighty hunter. [3] In the night sky,

he carries a bow and arrow and is accompanied by his

loyal dogs, Canis Major and Canis Minor. [4] The three

stars form the brilliant belt around the hunter’s waist.

[5] In the sky with Orion are the animals he used to hunt

on Earth—from a small rabbit to a huge bull. [6] The

scorpion that, according to myth, killed Orion inhabits

the sky as well, but at such a distance because it can never

sting the hunter again. [7] Even in an age of big-screen

televisions, their is still no show on Earth as big as the

night sky. [8] Stars up there play different roles around

the world, their dazzling careers span thousands of

years. k

69. A. NO CHANGE

B. In Japan’s imagination, this

C. In Japan, this

D. This

70. F. NO CHANGE

G. have

H. could of

J. has been

71. A. NO CHANGE

B. mythology of the Tswana people, of South Africa

C. mythology, of the Tswana people, of South Africa

D. mythology of the Tswana people of South Africa,

72. F. NO CHANGE

G. so when

H. this means

J. that

73. A. NO CHANGE

B. they’re

C. there

D. but there

74. F. NO CHANGE

G. world, and their

H. world, with

J. world,

75. The writer wants to divide the preceding paragraph

into two to create a concluding paragraph that is free

of direct references to a specific culture’s view of the

three stars. The best place to begin the new paragraph

would be at the beginning of Sentence:

A. 4.

B. 5.

C. 6.

D. 7.

ACT-67C-PRACTICE

END OF TEST 1

STOP! DO NOT TURN THE PAGE UNTIL TOLD TO DO SO.

1. The weekly fee for staying at the Pleasant Lake

Campground is $20 per vehicle and $10 per person.

Last year, weekly fees were paid for v vehicles and

p persons. Which of the following expressions gives

the total amount, in dollars, collected for weekly fees

last year?

A. 20v + 10p

B. 20p + 10v

C. 10(v + p)

D. 30(v + p)

E. 10(v + p) + 20p

2. If r = 9, b = 5, and g =−6, what does (r + b − g)(b + g)

equal?

F. −20

G. 0−8

H. 0 8

J. 19

K. 20

3. A copy machine makes 60 copies per minute. A second

copy machine makes 80 copies per minute. The second

machine starts making copies 2 minutes after the first

machine starts. Both machines stop making copies

8 minutes after the first machine started. Together, the

2 machines made how many copies?

A. 480

B. 600

C. 680

D. 720

E. 960

4. Marlon is bowling in a tournament and has the highest

average after 5 games, with scores of 210, 225, 254,

231, and 280. In order to maintain this exact average,

what must be Marlon’s score for his 6th game?

F. 200

G. 210

H. 231

J. 240

K. 245

5. Joelle earns her regular pay of $7.50 per hour for up to

40 hours of work in a week. For each hour over

40 hours of work in a week, Joelle is paid 1 times her

regular pay. How much does Joelle earn for a week in

which she works 42 hours?

A. $126.00

B. $315.00

C. $322.50

D. $378.00

E. $472.50

6. Which of the following mathematical expressions is

equivalent to the verbal expression “A number, x,

squared is 39 more than the product of 10 and x” ?

F. 2x = 390 + 10x

G. 2x = 39x + 10x

H. 0x

= 390 − 10x

J. 0x

= 390 + 00x

K. 0x

= 390 + 10x

7. If 9(x − 9) =−11, then x = ?

A. −

B. −

C. −

D. −

___

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MATHEMATICS TEST

60 Minutes—60 Questions

ACT-67C-PRACTICE

IRECTIONS: Solve each problem, choose the correct

answer, and then fill in the corresponding oval on your

answer document.

Do not linger over problems that take too much time.

Solve as many as you can; then return to the others in

the time you have left for this test.

You are permitted to use a calculator on this test. You

may use your calculator for any problems you choose,

ut some of the problems may best be done without

using a calculator.

Note: Unless otherwise stated, all of the following should

be assumed.

1. Illustrative figures are NOT necessarily drawn to scale.

2. Geometric figures lie in a plane.

3. The word

line

indicates a straight line.

4. The word

average

indicates arithmetic mean.

8. Discount tickets to a basketball tournament sell for

$4.00 each. Enrico spent $60.00 on discount tickets,

$37.50 less than if he had bought the tickets at the

regular price. What was the regular ticket price?

F. $02.50

G. $06.40

H. $06.50

J. $07.50

K. $11.00

9. The expression (3x − 4y

)(3x + 4y

) is equivalent to:

A. 9x

− 16y

B. 9x

− 08y

C. 9x

+ 16y

D. 6x

− 16y

E. 6x

− 08y

10. A rectangle has an area of 32 square feet and a

perimeter of 24 feet. What is the shortest of the side

lengths, in feet, of the rectangle?

F. 1

G. 2

H. 3

J. 4

K. 8

11. In 䉭ABC, the sum of the measures of ∠A and ∠B is

47°. What is the measure of ∠C ?

A. 047°

B. 086°

C. 094°

D. 133°

E. 143°

12. In the school cafeteria, students choose their lunch

from 3 sandwiches, 3 soups, 4 salads, and 2 drinks.

How many different lunches are possible for a student

who chooses exactly 1 sandwich, 1 soup, 1 salad, and

1drink?

F. 02

G. 04

H. 12

J. 36

K. 72

13. For 2 consecutive integers, the result of adding the

smaller integer and triple the larger integer is 79. What

are the 2 integers?

A. 18, 19

B. 19, 20

C. 20, 21

D. 26, 27

E. 39, 40

14. A function f (x) is defined as f(x) =−8x

. What is f(− 3) ?

F. 0−72

G. 0 72

H. 0192

J. − 576

K. 0576

15. If 3

= 54, then which of the following must be true?

A. 1 < x < 2

B. 2 < x < 3

C. 3 < x < 4

D. 4 < x < 5

E. 5 < x

16. What is the least common multiple of 70, 60, and 50 ?

F. 000,060

G. 000,180

H. 000,210

J. 002,100

K. 210,000

17. Hot Shot Electronics is designing a packing box for its

new line of Acoustical Odyssey speakers. The box is a

rectangular prism of length 45 centimeters, width

30 centimeters, and volume 81,000 cubic centimeters.

What is the height, in centimeters, of the box?

A. 75

B. 60

C. 48

D. 27

E. 18

18. Four points, A, B, C, and D, lie on a circle having a

circumference of 15 units. B is 2 units counterclockwise

from A. C is 5 units clockwise from A. D is 7 units

clockwise from A and 8 units counterclockwise from A.

What is the order of the points, starting with A and

going clockwise around the circle?

F. A, B, C, D

G. A, B, D, C

H. A, C, B, D

J. A, C, D, B

K. A, D, C, B

19. A group of cells grows in number as described by the

equation y = 16(2)

, where t represents the number of

days and y represents the number of cells. According

to this formula, how many cells will be in the group at

the end of the first 5 days?

A. 0,080

B. 0,160

C. 0,400

D. 0,512

E. 1,280

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ACT-67C-PRACTICE

20. The length of a rectangle is 3 times the length of a

smaller rectangle. The 2 rectangles have the same

width. The area of the smaller rectangle is A square

units. The area of the larger rectangle is kA square

units. Which of the following is the value of k ?

H. 1

J. 3

K. 9

21. (a + 2b + 3c) − (4a + 6b − 5c) is equivalent to:

A. −4a − 8b − 2c

B. −4a − 4b + 8c

C. −3a + 8b − 2c

D. −3a − 4b − 2c

E. −3a − 4b + 8c

22. The dimensions of the right triangle shown below are

given in feet. What is sin,θ ?

23. In a basketball passing drill, 5 basketball players stand

evenly spaced around a circle. The player with the ball

(the passer) passes it to another player (the receiver).

The receiver cannot be the player to the passer’s

immediate right or left and cannot be the player who

last passed the ball. A designated player begins the

drill as the first passer. This player will be the receiver

for the first time on which pass of the ball?

A. 04th

B. 05th

C. 06th

D. 10th

E. 24th

24. Lines p and n lie in the standard (x,y) coordinate plane.

An equation for line p is y = 0.12x + 3,000. The slope

of line n is 0.1 greater than the slope of line p. What is

the slope of line n ?

F. 000.012

G. 000.02

H. 000.22

J. 001.2

K. 300

25. The expression −8x

(7x

− 3x

) is equivalent to:

A. −56x

+ 24x

B. −56x

− 24x

C. −56x

+ 24x

D. −56x

− 24x

E. −32x

26. −3



−6 + 8



= ?

F. −42

G. 0−6

H. 0−1

J. 06

K. 42

27. In right triangle 䉭ACE below, BD

___

is parallel to AE

___

and BD

___

is perpendicular to EC

___

at D. The length of AC

___

is 20 feet, the length of BD

___

is 3 feet, and the length of

___

is 4 feet. What is the length, in feet, of AE

___

A. 10

B. 12

C. 15

D. 16

E. 17

28. As part of a lesson on motion, students observed a cart

rolling at a constant rate along a straight line. As

shown in the chart below, they recorded the distance,

y feet, of the cart from a reference point at 1-second

intervals from t = 0 seconds to t = 5 seconds.

Which of the following equations represents this data?

F. y = 00t + 14

G. y = 05t + 09

H. y = 05t + 14

J. y = 14t + 05

K. y = 19t

t 012345

y 14 19 24 29 34 39

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ACT-67C-PRACTICE

29. The inequality 6(x  2)  7(x < 5) is equivalent to

which of the following inequalities?

A. x <23

B. x  07

C. x  17

D. x  37

E. x  47

30. The sides of a square are 3 cm long. One vertex of the

square is at (2,0) on a square coordinate grid marked in

centimeter units. Which of the following points could

also be a vertex of the square?

F. (<4, 0)

G. (0,1)

H. (1,<1)

J. (4,1)

K. (5,0)

31. For FGH, shown below, which of the following is an

expression for y in terms of x ?

A. x  4

32. A bag contains 12 red marbles, 5 yellow marbles, and

15 green marbles. How many additional red marbles

must be added to the 32 marbles already in the bag so

that the probability of randomly drawing a red marble

is ?

F. 13

G. 18

H. 28

J. 32

K. 40

 16

< 16

 8

 4

x meters

ers

33. What are the quadrants of the standard (x,y) coordinate

plane below that contain points on the graph of the

equation 4x < 2y  8 ?

A. I and III only

B. I, II, and III only

C. I, II, and IV only

D. I, III, and IV only

E. II, III, and IV only

34. The graph of y <5x

 9 passes through (1,2a) in the

standard (x,y) coordinate plane. What is the value of a ?

F. 2

G. 4

H. 7

J. <1

K. <8

35. Jerome, Kevin, and Seth shared a submarine sandwich.

Jerome ate of the sandwich, Kevin ate of the

sandwich, and Seth ate the rest. What is the ratio of

Jerome’s share to Kevin’s share to Seth’s share?

A. 2:3:6

B. 2:6:3

C. 3:1:2

D. 3:2:1

E. 6:3:2

36. A particular circle in the standard (x,y) coordinate

plane has an equation of (x < 5)

 y

 38. What are

the radius of the circle, in coordinate units, and the

coordinates of the center of the circle?

radius center

F. 38 ( 5,0)

G. 0019 ( 5,0)

H. 0038 ( 5,0)

J. 38 (<5,0)

K. 0019 (<5,0)

II I

III

quadrants

of the

standard (x,y)

coordinate

plane

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ACT-67C-PRACTICE

37. The figure below consists of a square and

2 semicircles, with dimensions as shown. What is the

outside perimeter, in centimeters, of the figure?

A. 08 + 08π

B. 16 + 08π

C. 16 + 16π

D. 32 + 08π

E. 32 + 16π

38. In the figure below, points E and F are the midpoints

of sides AD

___

and BC

___

of rectangle ABCD, point G is

the intersection of AF

___

and BE

___

, and point H is the

intersection of CE

___

and DF

___

. The interior of ABCD

except for the interior of EGFH is shaded. What is the

ratio of the area of EGFH to the area of the shaded

region?

F. 1:2

G. 1:3

H. 1:4

J. 1:6

K. Cannot be determined from the given information

39. The coordinates of the endpoints of CD

___

, in the

standard (x,y) coordinate plane, are (−4,− 2) and (14,2).

What is the x-coordinate of the midpoint of CD

___

A. 00

B. 02

C. 05

D. 09

E. 10

40. What is the surface area, in square inches, of an 8-inch

cube?

F. 512

G. 384

H. 320

J. 256

K. 192

8 cm

41. The equations below are linear equations of a system

where a, b, and c are positive integers.

ay + bx = c

ay − bx = c

Which of the following describes the graph of at

least 1 such system of equations in the standard (x,y)

coordinate plane?

I. 2 parallel lines

II. 2 intersecting lines

III. A single line

A. I only

B. II only

C. III only

D. I or II only

E. I, II, or III

42. According to the measurements given in the figure

below, which of the following expressions gives the

distance, in miles, from the boat to the dock?

F. 30 tan

, 52°

G. 30 cos,52°

H. 30 sin, 52°

43. The circle graph below shows the distribution of

registered voters, by age, for a community. Registered

voters are randomly selected from this distribution to

be called for jury duty. What are the odds (in the age

range:not in the age range) that the first person called

for jury duty is in the age range of 25−35 years?

A. 01:3

B. 07:8

C. 07:43

D. 21:29

E. 42:25

18–24

25–35

36–44

45–55

56 and up

Distribution of Registered Voters by Age

42%

14%

25%

11%

_______

sin 52°

_______

cos 52°

lighthouse

dock

52°

boat

30 miles

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ACT-67C-PRACTICE

The figure below shows the design of a circular stained-

glass panel on display at Hopewell’s Antique Shop. Seams

separate the pieces of the panel. All red triangular pieces

shown are congruent and have a common vertex with each

adjoining triangular piece. The 2 squares shown are

inscribed in the circle. The diameter of the panel is 2 feet.

44. The design of the stained-glass panel has how many

lines of symmetry in the plane of the panel?

F. 02

G. 04

H. 08

J. 16

K. Infinitely many

45. What is the area of the stained-glass panel, to the

nearest 0.1 square foot?

A. 03.1

B. 04.0

C. 06.2

D. 08.0

E. 12.6

46. Kaya wants to install a new circular stained-glass

window in her living room. The design of the window

will be identical to that of the panel. The diameter of

the new window will be 75% longer than the diameter

of the panel. The new window will be how many feet

in diameter?

F. 1.50

G. 2.50

H. 2.75

J. 3.50

K. 4.00

red piece

orange piece

seam

2 feet

yellow piece

47. In the figure below, AB

___

储

___

, AE

___

bisects ∠BAC, and

___

isects ∠AC D. If the measure of ∠BAC is 82°,

what is the measure of ∠AEC ?

A. 86°

B. 88°

C. 90°

D. 92°

E. Cannot be determined from the given information

48. In the circle shown below, chords TR

__ _

and QS

___

intersect

at P, which is the center of the circle, and the measure

of ∠PST is 30°. What is the degree measure of minor

arc RS

២

F. 30°

G. 45°

H. 60°

J. 90°

K. Cannot be determined from the given information

49. For what value of a would the following system of

equations have an infinite number of solutions?

2x – 0y = 80

6x – 3y = 4a

A. 02

B. 06

C. 08

D. 24

E. 32

30°

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

ACT-67C-PRACTICE

Use the following information to answer

questions 44–46.

Marcia makes and sells handcrafted picture frames in

2 sizes: small and large. It takes her 2 hours to make a

small frame and 3 hours to make a large frame. The shaded

triangular region shown below is the graph of a system of

inequalities representing weekly constraints Marcia has

in making the frames. For making and selling s small

frames and l large frames, Marcia makes a profit of

30s + 70l dollars. Marcia sells all the frames she makes.

50. The weekly constraint represented by the horizontal

line segment containing (9,2) means that each week

Marcia makes a minimum of:

F. 02 large frames.

G. 09 large frames.

H. 02 small frames.

J. 09 small frames.

K. 11 small frames.

51. For every hour that Marcia spends making frames in

the second week of December each year, she donates

$3 from that week’s profit to a local charity. This year,

Marcia made 4 large frames and 2 small frames in that

week. Which of the following is closest to the percent

of that week’s profit Marcia donated to the charity?

A. 06%

B. 12%

C. 14%

D. 16%

E. 19%

52. What is the maximum profit Marcia can earn from the

picture frames she makes in 1 week?

F. $410

G. $460

H. $540

J. $560

K. $690

0 2 4 6 8 10

number of small frames

number of large frames

(0,8)

(9,2)

53. The determinant of a matrix

冤冥

equals ad − cb.

What must be the value of x for the matrix

冤冥

have a determinant of −16 ?

A. −4

B. −2

C. −

E. 4

54. A formula for finding the value, A dollars, of P dollars

invested at i% interest compounded annually for

n years is A = P(1 + 0.01i)

. Which of the following is

an expression for P in terms of i, n, and A ?

F. A − 0.01i

G. A + 0.01i

冢冣

55. If x and y are real numbers such that x > 1 and y <−1,

then which of the following inequalities must be true?

A. > 1



C. − 5 >−5

D. x

+ 1 > y

+ 1

E. x

−2

> y

−2

__________

(1 + 0.01i)

__________

(1 − 0.01i)

_________

1 + 0.01i

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

ACT-67C-PRACTICE

Use the following information to answer

questions 50–52.

56. Triangles 䉭 ABC and 䉭PQR are shown below. The

given side lengths are in centimeters. The area of

䉭ABC is 30 square centimeters. What is the area of

䉭PQR, in square centimeters?

F. 15

G. 19

H. 25

J. 30

K. 33

57. Triangle 䉭ABC is shown in the figure below. The

measure of ∠A is 40°, AB = 18 cm, and AC = 12 cm.

Which of the following is the length, in centimeters, of

___

(Note: For a triangle with sides of length a, b, and c

opposite angles ∠A, ∠B, and ∠C, respectively, the law

of sines states ==and the law of

cosines states c

= a

+ b

− 2ab cos,∠C.)

A. 12 sin,40°

B. 18 sin,40°

公

僓僓僓僓僓僓僓僓僓僓僓僓僓僓僓僓僓僓僓僓僓僓僓

+ 18

− 2(12)(18) cos 40°

公

僓僓僓僓僓僓僓僓

+ 18

公

僓僓僓僓僓僓僓僓

− 12

40°

18 cm

12 cm

sin ∠A

______

sin ∠B

______

sin ∠C

______

70°

110°

58. What is the sum of the first 4 terms of the arithmetic

sequence in which the 6th term is 8 and the 10th term

is 13 ?

F. 10.5

G. 14.5

H. 18

J. 21.25

K. 39.5

59. In the equation x

+ mx + n = 0, m and n are integers.

The only possible value for x is –3. What is the value

of m ?

A. 3

B. –3

C. 6

D. –6

E. 9

60. The solution set of which of the following equations is

the set of real numbers that are 5 units from −3 ?



x + 3



= 5



x − 3



= 5



x + 5



= 3



x − 5



= 3



x + 5



= −3

ACT-67C-PRACTICE

END OF TEST 2

STOP! DO NOT TURN THE PAGE UNTIL TOLD TO DO SO.

DO NOT RETURN TO THE PREVIOUS TEST.

Passage I

The passage begins with a female narrator traveling to her

hometown.

The moon gives some light and I can make out the

contours of the land, see the faint reflection in the lakes

and ponds we pass. Several times I see or imagine I see

glowing eyes staring back at me from a patch of woods

beside the track. When we pass through the tiny towns,

I try to read their signs, catch their names from their

water towers or grain elevators. Occasionally the train

stops at . . . Portage . . . Winona . . . Red Wing.

In my sleeping compartment, watching the night

countryside, so much world rolls by my window. Like a

voyeur I watch the various reunion scenes. I feel these

scenes add up to something, some meaning or lesson

about all life, and I try to put it into words for myself

but find I can’t. I finally give up, roll over, go to sleep,

and dream.

But now I am awake, keeping my vigil over the

Midwest’s pastoral kingdom. Chicago, even Minneapo-

lis seems a long way away. A few hours later, still in

the deep night hours, the train arrives at my stop,

Detroit Lakes, Minnesota, the closest I can get to my

destination.

Suddenly, as I descend the two steps from the

train, the porter hands me into one of the reunion

scenes. “Hi, honey, how was the trip? Did you get any

sleep?” “A little. Been waiting long?” “Long enough to

beat your dad in two games of cribbage . . . ” Glancing

back at the train windows, I imagine I am looking into

eyes hidden behind mirrored sunglasses.

* * *

I think about progress a lot in the next few days

and about what passes for progress. Nightly we walk

about town, talk marriages and funerals, then sit on the

newly installed benches on Main Street. Together we

assemble from our memories the town as it was twenty

or twenty-five years ago. We remember the little Model

Meat Market and the old Pioneer office. We rebuild the

Landmark Hotel, take down the vinyl fronts from the

grocery store, change the light posts, the awnings, the

names of the current businesses. I put back the old

depot, you the corner funeral home. But soon we are

distracted and leave things half constructed when we

begin to add the people, what’s-his-name, the square

dance caller; Ed, the fire chief; and Lydia, the town’s

best gossip. On the walk back home, we have begun to

list very specific things, which is the closest we get to

the intangibles: the rental meat lockers, the four-digit

telephone numbers, the free ice cream during dairy

month.

Late at night in my old bed, I listen to the night

sounds of the house and fall asleep counting the

changes that have come to my little hometown: The

park is off limits after dark now, the football field is

fenced in, one-hour photo has come to town along with

a tanning salon and a pizza parlor. The dry goods store

is gone, the dairy, long gone. People lock their houses

now more than once a year when the carnival comes to

town. But all of these changes pale in comparison to

what has replaced the bait shop, the used car lot, and

Mr. Morton’s small farm, what has sprung up on High-

way 59 at the edge of town: Las Vegas–style gambling.

* * *

Taking the train back, I decide to put on pajamas

and crawl under the sheets, hoping to trick myself into

a good night’s sleep. It seems to work. I have slept

soundly for several hours, but then the dreams start. I

fall in and out of them. But they are not the usual night-

mares. I am in a place where folks know you ten, fif-

teen, twenty years after you’ve left and still see in your

face that of your grandfather or aunt or cousin. I know I

am home and I feel safe.

I have an early breakfast with a would-be journal-

ist and some ski vacationers who want to talk about

election prospects. I merely feign attention. I nod or

laugh on cue, while I try to read upside-down a story in

the would-be journalist’s newspaper that has caught my

eye. It is about the Russian space station and the cos-

monaut who had been up in orbit during the takeover

attempt and ultimate dissolution of the Soviet Union.

After sixteen long months, they are bringing the cap-

sule back. While the train carries me back to my current

home and away from my former, I keep thinking about

READING TEST

35 Minutes—40 Questions

IRECTIONS: There are several passages in this test.

Each passage is accompanied by several questions.

After reading a passage, choose the best answer to each

question and fill in the corresponding oval on your

answer document. You may refer to the passages as

often as necessary.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

ACT-67C-PRACTICE

LITERARY NARRATIVE: This passage is adapted from the

short story “From Aboard the Night Train” by Kimberly M.

Earth Song, Sky Spirit: Short Stories of the Contemporary

Native American Experience

that poor cosmonaut coming back to find his whole

world changed, to find himself a man without a

country—at least without the country he left behind.

I watch the ten o’clock national news broadcast. I

see him emerge from the capsule. I see him try to stand

and have his knees buckle. I know they said it was

because he hadn’t been able to exercise for such a long

time, but I wonder if his weak-kneed feeling might not

have more to do with what he saw out the window of

the space station and with how the world was happen-

ing around without him.

1. The point of view from which the passage is told is

best described as that of:

A. a young adult riding a train through the small

towns of the Upper Midwest.

B. a young adult preparing to move away from her

hometown.

C. an adult missing the new home she has established.

D. an adult reflecting on the past and pondering the

present.

2. The passage contains recurring references to all of the

following EXCEPT:

F. dreams.

G. reunion scenes.

H. photographs.

J. train trips.

3. The first three paragraphs (lines 1–21) establish all of

the following about the narrator EXCEPT that she is:

A. passing through a number of towns.

B. originally from Chicago.

C. traveling by train.

D. observant of the landscape.

4. It can reasonably be inferred from the passage that the

narrator thinks her hometown has:

F. improved significantly over the years.

G. made little genuine progress.

H. remained about the same as it was years ago.

J. a chance of being rebuilt as it used to be.

5. Based on the narrator’s account, all of the following

were part of the past, rather than the present, in her

hometown EXCEPT:

A. four-digit phone numbers.

B. the fenced-in football field.

C. free ice cream during dairy month.

D. the depot.

6. According to the narrator, which of the following busi-

nesses is relatively new to her hometown?

F. The tanning salon

G. The bait shop

H. The dry goods store

J. The used-car lot

7. When the narrator refers to the cosmonaut as “a man

without a country” (lines 83–84), she is most likely

directly referring to the:

A. cosmonaut’s feeling that he is now a citizen of

space, not the former Soviet Union.

B. cosmonaut’s unrealized expectation that he will be

treated like a hero.

C. political transformation that occurred while the

cosmonaut was in space.

D. sixteen months that the cosmonaut spent in orbit

around Earth.

8. Details in the passage most strongly suggest that the

people meeting the narrator at the train station include:

F. her father.

G. her sister.

H. a neighbor.

J. a journalist.

9. The narrator indicates that the most significant change

to her hometown has been the addition of:

A. square dancing.

B. vinyl storefronts.

C. benches on Main Street.

D. Las Vegas–style gambling.

10. According to the passage, news reports attributed the

cosmonaut’s knees buckling to:

F. his gratitude at being back on Earth.

G. political changes in the world.

H. a lack of exercise.

J. his dismay at what he had seen from the space

station.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

ACT-67C-PRACTICE

Passage II

SOCIAL SCIENCE: This passage is adapted from the article

“Green Music in the Rain Forest” by Suzanne Charlé, which

appeared in the Fall 2002

Ford Foundation Report

OELA is an acronym based on Portuguese words rather than

the English words used in this article. A

luthier

is a maker of

stringed musical instruments.

The Amazonian Workshop School for Fabrication

of Stringed Instruments (OELA) is a small part of a

larger effort to create a sustainable harvest of the great

Amazon forest and to give employment to the region’s

burgeoning population.

“Few people know that the Amazon is one of the

most rapidly urbanizing regions of the world,” observes

José Gabriel López, a Ford Foundation program officer

in Brazil. The city of Manaus, for example, has grown

in the past decade from 850,000 to 1.5 million. “This

rural-urban migration and the resultant urban shanty-

towns stand as living symbols of failed or nonexistent

rural development policies,” López says. “In many

places, small-scale rural producers have been aban-

doned—devoid of health and education services, credit,

technical assistance and opportunity. What Rubens

Gomes, founder of the workshop school, and his col-

leagues have created in Manaus is hope.”

Gomes knows how to build hope. The school, he

notes proudly, is the first to make stringed instruments

in the Amazon. And it is the first in all of the Americas

to construct instruments exclusively of lumber har-

vested in an environmentally and socially sustainable

manner certified by the Forest Stewardship Council.

“Officially, there are 30 million cubic meters of

wood cut in the Amazon annually,” Gomes says.

“Twenty million of this is wasted—sawdust, scraps,

unwanted wood left to rot. And those are the official

numbers. The motive of this school is to transform what

is lost into things of value. Many people could do

this—but there are no schools teaching carpentry in the

Amazon.”

OELA is meant to help fill the void. To graduate,

each student must make a stringed instrument. All the

guitars are made from certified wood. Gomes explains

that traditionally, Brazilian rosewood and ebony were

used in the construction of guitars. But because of

intense harvesting, these trees are close to extinction.

“I’ve been working for years, trying to find Amazon

woods that are unknown on the market, that are in plen-

tiful supply and that can be used in instrument

making,” Gomes says. He experimented with dozens

before he found types that have the right strength and

sound. (Like other master luthiers, he can tell by touch-

ing the wood whether it will reverberate well.) Once he

identified the woods as possible substitutes, he sent

them to a laboratory to be tested for the right grain and

density. Today, Brosimum rubescens is substituted for

rosewood, Aniba canellila for ebony, and Protium

species for Brazilian mahogany and cedar. These and

some 25 other undervalued tropical hardwoods have

found their way into the luthiers’ workshop, taking the

pressure off the better-known woods.

For the past year, master luthier Raúl Lage from

the Fernando Ortiz Instrument-Making School of the

Cuban Music Institute has been working with the stu-

dents. There are hurdles, he cautions, a number of them

technical. The high humidity in Manaus means that the

wood will crack in drier climates unless properly

treated. Glue frequently doesn’t hold. These problems

are slowly being resolved.

There is also a major obstacle outside the work-

shop: The resistance of buyers to new woods. Thus far,

most of the instruments have been sold to environmen-

talists, some of whom “adopt” a student by paying his

or her tuition; the student’s “project guitar” is then

given to the donor as a gift.

There is also the possibility of contract work from

outside the Amazon. Gomes’s hopes were raised

recently when the president of a well-known guitar

company based in Nashville, Tennessee, ordered

15 guitars to be auctioned off for the Rainforest

Alliance.

Lage cautions that it will be a long time before any

of the students can command a master luthier’s fee.

“There is a saying,” Lage says. “Anyone can make one

good guitar; it takes a master to make one every time.”

José Lucio do Nascimento Rabelo, director of the

technical school, says, “By learning this skill, students

come to look at the forest in a new way; there are ways

other than logging for plywood and firewood to earn a

living, to better the life of the people.” One of the

woods being used as a replacement for the precious

rosewood, he notes, is typically used to make charcoal.

Such an appreciation for the forest, says Rabelo,

could have a huge effect on the survival of the rain

forest; some 80 percent of the students come from other

parts of the state of Amazonas, and virtually all of them

return to their home towns. “Some,” he adds, “go on to

become politicians who will have a direct influence on

the future of the forest.”

11. Which of the following assumptions would be most

critical for a reader to accept in order to agree fully

with the author’s claims in the passage?

A. Shantytowns in the Amazon need to be relocated if

the forest is to be saved.

B. Learning to make consistently good guitars

requires access to the best materials available.

C. Small-scale rural producers in the Amazon can

help preserve the forest by being innovative.

D. Consumers outside of the Amazon can do little to

help prevent deforestation.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

ACT-67C-PRACTICE

12. In the context of the passage, the statement “All the

guitars are made from certified wood” (lines 34–35)

most nearly suggests that Gomes’s workshop:

F. uses environmentally sustainable woods in its

guitars.

G. isn’t doing enough to stop unnecessary deforesta-

tion in the Amazon.

H. has little chance of pleasing both musicians and

environmentalists.

J. uses only traditional woods in making its guitars.

13. It can most reasonably be inferred from the passage

that regarding OELA, the author feels:

A. skeptical of the workshop’s aims.

B. dismayed by the workshop’s low productivity.

C. supportive of the workshop’s goals.

D. confident that the workshop could be duplicated in

other places.

14. The main purpose of the second paragraph (lines 6–18)

is to:

F. draw attention to the Amazon’s tremendous popu-

lation growth.

G. explain the necessity for ventures such as

Gomes’s.

H. explain the presence of the Ford Foundation in the

Amazon.

J. justify raising taxes to increase social services in

the Amazon.

15. The main function of the fifth paragraph (lines 33–53)

is to:

A. demonstrate the woodworking skills required to be

a master luthier.

B. explore the limitations of science as compared to

intuition.

C. outline the scientific reasons why one type of

wood cannot be replaced by another.

D. show that experiments led to the discovery of good

substitutes for rare woods.

16. The passage notes all of the following as problems that

the fledgling Amazon guitar industry has experienced

EXCEPT that:

F. glue on the guitars sometimes doesn’t hold.

G. the wood used may crack in drier climates.

H. woods usable for guitars have become extinct.

J. buyers resist guitars made with nontraditional

woods.

17. The passage indicates that, as a group, the OELA stu-

dents may impact the survival of the rain forests

because most of them:

A. care deeply enough about music to spend their

lives making musical instruments.

B. will return to their homes and spread their envi-

ronmental knowledge.

C. are willing to endure personal hardships in order

to use their new skills.

D. will have political careers after they return home.

18. In the passage, Gomes indicates that of the wood cut in

the Amazon rain forest each year, approximately how

much wood is wasted?

F. One-fourth

G. One-third

H. One-half

J. Two-thirds

19. The passage states that all of the following are woods

traditionally used for making stringed instruments

EXCEPT:

A. Aniba canellila.

B. rosewood.

C. Brazilian mahogany.

D. ebony.

20. According to the passage, when an OELA student is

“adopted,” he or she receives:

F. tuition.

G. room and board.

H. food and clothing.

J. a musical instrument.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

ACT-67C-PRACTICE

Passage III

HUMANITIES: This passage is adapted from the article “Find-

Descartes

(line 63) refers to René Descartes (1596–1650), a

French mathematician, philosopher, and scientist.

I have been an academic philosopher for the past

30 years. I came from an academically disinclined

background in the northeast of England, my relatives

being mainly coalminers and other manual workers. I

was the first in my family to attend university, and

indeed had no thought of it until age 17, when a teacher

mentioned it at school. My father had become a suc-

cessful builder, so we were not materially deprived, and

it was expected that I would become some sort of tech-

nical worker. The idea that I might one day become a

professional philosopher was inconceivable in those

days, to me and everyone else. I was simply not living

in a place where that kind of thing ever happened; it

was far likelier—though still not at all likely—that I

would become a pop star (I played drums in a rock

band).

The paperback British edition of my memoir The

Making of a Philosopher has a photograph on the cover

of a man sitting on a bench, placed in a grey and listless

landscape. He is overlooking the sea on a misty grim

day, and the atmosphere is bleak and melancholy. The

man, hunched up, immobile, coiled almost, has a pen-

sive posture, as if frozen in thought. This picture is

based on a story I tell in the book about sitting on a

bench in Blackpool, aged 18, pondering the metaphysi-

cal question of how objects relate to their properties. Is

an object just the sum total of its properties, a mere

coalescence of general features, or does it somehow lie

behind its properties, supporting them, a solid peg on

which they happen to hang? When I look at an object

do I really see the object itself, or just the appearance

its properties offer to me? I remember the feeling of

fixation that came over me when I thought about these

questions—a kind of floating fascination, a still

perplexity.

When I look back on this period in my late teens, I

recall the harnessing of undirected mental energy by

intellectual pursuits. Up until then, my mental energy

had gone into things like reading Melody Maker, which

contained fairly serious articles about pop musicians; I

always knew the top 20 off by heart, and studied the

articles about drummers intensely, hoping to improve

my own technique. I suspect that this kind of swashing

mental energy is fairly typical of boys that age. School

doesn’t seem to connect with it, and it goes off in

search of some object of interest, often trivial, some-

times destructive. In my case, it was philosophy that

seized that energy and converted it into a passion—

though one that took several years to form fully. It is a

delicate and fastidious energy that I am speaking of,

despite its power, and it will only be satisfied by certain

employments, which of course vary from person to

person. I had had a similar passion for chemistry when

I was ten, and for butterflies and lizards before that.

How to harness such passions to formal education

remains a great and unresolved problem.

It was—of course—a teacher who tapped into my

formless and fizzing mental energy. Mr Marsh, teacher

of divinity, brimmingly Christian, a man with very

active eyebrows and sharp enunciation, in love with

scholarship (oh, how he relished that word)—it was he

who first brought out my inner philosopher. From him I

heard of Descartes, locked up in his room, wondering

whether anything could really be known beyond his

own existence. But what I mainly got from the enthusi-

astic Mr Marsh was the desire to study. His own pas-

sion for study shone through, and he managed to make

it seem, if not glamorous, then at least exhilarating—

when done the right way and in the right spirit. Pencils

and stationery were made to seem like shiny tools, and

the pleasure of making one’s mark on a blank sheet of

paper hymned. Choosing a good spot to study was

emphasised. Above all, I learned a very valuable

lesson, one that had hitherto escaped me: make notes.

Thinking and writing should be indissoluble activities,

the hand ministering to the thought, the thought shaped

by the hand. Today, if I find myself without pen and

paper and thoughts start to arrive, my fingers begin to

twitch and I long for those implements of cogitation.

With such rudimentary tools you can perform the

miracle of turning an invisible thought into a concrete

mark, bringing the ethereal interior into the public

external world, refining it into something precious and

permanent. The physical pleasure of writing, which I

find survives in the use of a computer, is something

worth dwelling on in matters of education.

21. The passage is best described as being told from the

point of view of a philosopher who is:

A. discussing metaphysical questions that have trou-

bled philosophers since the time of Descartes.

B. presenting in chronological order the key events in

his thirty-year professional career.

C. reflecting on his own early, developing interest in

philosophy and in scholarship generally.

D. advising professional educators on how to get

more students to study philosophy.

22. Based on the passage, which of the following was most

likely the first to engage the author’s passionate

interest?

F. Drumming

G. Philosophy

H. Chemistry

J. Butterflies

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

ACT-67C-PRACTICE

23. The main purpose of the last paragraph is to:

A. reveal the enduring impact of Mr. Marsh’s lessons

on the author.

B. acknowledge that the author came to doubt some

of Mr. Marsh’s teachings.

C. describe a typical class as taught by Mr. Marsh.

D. present a biographical sketch of Mr. Marsh.

24. The passage indicates that the man in the book-cover

photograph represents:

F. Descartes, wondering what could be known.

G. Mr. Marsh, deep in scholarly thought.

H. the author at age seventeen, thinking about

enrolling in college.

J. the author at age eighteen, contemplating a philo-

sophical issue.

25. The author mentions Melody Maker, the top 20, and

articles about musicians primarily to suggest that his:

A. early interest in music has remained with him to

the present.

B. time spent playing music should instead have been

spent reading.

C. fascination with pop music and musicians gave

focus to his life for a time.

D. commitment to study enabled him to perfect his

drumming technique.

26. In the third paragraph (lines 36–56), the author most

nearly characterizes the energy he refers to as:

F. potent yet difficult to channel in a constructive

way.

G. powerful and typically leading to destructive

results.

H. delicate and inevitably wasted in trivial

undertakings.

J. gentle yet capable of uniting people who have dif-

ferent interests.

27. Viewed in the context of the passage, the statement in

lines 55–56 is most likely intended to suggest that:

A. schools should require students to take philosophy

courses.

B. students can become passionate when learning

about science in school.

C. schools need to keep searching for ways to tap into

students’ deeply held interests.

D. students should resolve to take school courses that

interest them.

28. The author calls pen and paper “rudimentary tools”

(line 80) as part of his argument that:

F. the use of computers has made the use of pen and

paper obsolete.

G. students should become skilled with pen and paper

before moving on to better tools.

H. while writing with pen and paper can be pleasant,

it can also be physically painful.

J. although seemingly simple, pen and paper allow

people to perform great feats.

29. In the context of the passage, lines 17–23 are best

described as presenting images of:

A. gloom, tension, and fascination.

B. anger, bitterness, and betrayal.

C. stillness, peacefulness, and relaxation.

D. frustration, surprise, and satisfaction.

30. Which of the following does NOT reasonably describe

the transition the author presents in lines 80–84?

F. Precious to commonplace

G. Fleeting to permanent

H. Invisible to visible

J. Private to public

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

ACT-67C-PRACTICE

Passage IV

NATURAL SCIENCE: This passage is adapted from

Consider

the Eel

The known facts, as they are pretty much univer-

sally accepted among biologists and naturalists today,

are that all the eels in all the rivers of eastern North

America and the Caribbean countries, and all the eels in

all the rivers of eastern and western Europe, are born in

the same area of the Sargasso Sea, a huge area within

the Atlantic Ocean, between Bermuda and the Azores,

the surface of which is frequently covered with sargas-

sum seaweed. In fact, the word “Sargasso” comes from

the Portuguese sargaço, meaning seaweed. The sea is

about 2,000 miles long and 1,000 miles wide, set off

from the surrounding waters of the Atlantic by strong

currents. It includes the area known in popular legend

as the Bermuda Triangle.

Eels hatch in the Sargasso as larvae and are carried

by the ocean currents to either Europe or the United

States, a journey that can cover thousands of miles and

take years. Where they end up depends on which of two

similar species they belong to. Those that are Anguilla

anguilla invariably wind up in European rivers, and

those that enter North American rivers always belong to

the species Anguilla rostrata. The first person to find

eel larvae in the Sargasso Sea was Danish researcher

Johannes Schmidt, who published his findings in 1924,

after spending 18 years hauling nets in search of eels.

The larvae of both species are shaped like small

oval leaves and are called leptocephali. Each lepto-

cephalus begins to assume the form of a tiny eel, called

an elver or glass eel, when it gets close to the coasts of

either Europe or the Americas. By the time it reaches

brackish water, where fresh and salt water mix, it is thin

and transparent, hardly bigger than a hair, with a pair of

eyes like black dots at one end.

From the estuaries and mouths of rivers, the tiny

eels frequently continue upstream, particularly the

females, who sometimes go great distances inland.

American eels have been found as far up the Missis-

sippi River system as the rivers of Iowa. They keep

going upriver until something tells them they’ve

reached home, and then they stop. Whatever it is that

signals to eels that they are home is definitive—they

settle in and live there for as long as 20 years, growing

up to a yard long before beginning their journey back to

the Sargasso Sea. Scientists determine an eel’s age

using a microscope to read the growth rings of its

otolith—a small, hard calcium deposit at the base of its

skull.

In preparation for the return journey to the Sar-

gasso, sexually mature female eels feed voraciously and

change color from the muddy-yellow/green of adult

eels, often called yellow eels, to a darker green on top

and snow-white on their bellies. At this stage, they are

called silver eels. They swim downriver in the fall, on

the first leg of their journey to the Sargasso, and when

they reach estuarine waters, they rest, completing their

final transformation as silver eels. They will have eaten

heavily and will be about 28 percent body fat. They

will never eat again, and their digestive systems will

atrophy. Their pupils will expand and turn blue. They

will need a new kind of sight adapted to the depths of

the sea, where there is little light. They will also have

to go through a drastic adjustment, via osmosis, in their

blood chemistry, to prepare for the tremendous change

in water pressure, going from some 14 pounds of fresh-

water pressure per inch of their bodies to over a ton of

ocean pressure per inch. Once they are back in the Sar-

gasso Sea, the females produce eggs for the males to

fertilize, and then the adults die.

At least that is what today’s marine biologists and

naturalists tell us, although adult eels have never been

seen swimming, reproducing, or dying in the Sargasso.

In fact, live adult eels have never been seen there at all.

The only two adult eels ever reported in the Sargasso

Sea were dead, found in the stomachs of other fish. The

eel’s migration back to its birthplace and what it actu-

ally does when it gets there are assumed to take place

far below the water’s surface and, as of the year 2001,

were still completely unobserved. However, the eel

larvae—the leptocephali that Schmidt found in the Sar-

gasso—were so small that it was certain they had been

born recently, and nearby. Such small larvae have never

been seen elsewhere, and while eels have never been

observed reproducing in the Sargasso, they have never

been seen doing so anyplace else either. Scientists

believe the larvae hatch out of eggs at a depth of

100–300 yards and rise slowly toward the light at the

sea’s surface.

31. One of the main ideas established by the passage is

that:

A. researchers have nearly exhausted their resources

after spending decades investigating the Sargasso

Sea.

B. significant gaps still remain in researchers’ under-

standing of the life cycle of eels.

C. eels live their entire lives in the Sargasso Sea, but

no one has ever seen them there.

D. female eels turn into silver eels toward the end of

their lives.

32. Learning about which of the following had the largest

impact on scientists’ current understanding of where

eels breed?

F. The direction in which ocean currents carry eel

larvae

G. The relationship of the yellow eel stage to the

silver eel stage

H. Schmidt’s discovery of eel larvae in the Sargasso

Sea

J. The adult eels found in the stomachs of other fish

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

ACT-67C-PRACTICE

33. The main purpose of the fourth paragraph (lines

34–47) is to describe the:

A. eels’ transition from freshwater to the ocean.

B. method of determining the age of eels.

C. complexity of the Mississippi River system.

D. river stage of the eel life cycle.

34. The passage states that the Sargasso Sea is set off from

the rest of the Atlantic Ocean by:

F. the Azores.

G. several Caribbean countries.

H. powerful winds.

J. strong currents.

35. The passage notes that the Sargasso Sea includes:

A. the eastern North American shore.

B. the Bermuda Triangle.

C. certain coastal estuaries.

D. the mouth of the Mississippi River.

36. As it is used in line 13, the word popular most nearly

means:

F. well liked.

G. commonly known.

H. scientifically accepted.

J. most admired.

37. As it is used in line 45, the word re ad most nearly

means to:

A. learn from print.

B. observe.

C. think about.

D. predict.

38. The passage indicates that female eels’ pupils expand

and turn blue because the eels:

F. must adapt to see in an environment with much

less light than they are used to.

G. are about to undergo a change in their blood

chemistry.

H. no longer need to be able to recognize food

sources since they have stopped eating.

J. need to be able to recognize the male eels that will

fertilize their eggs.

39. The passage most strongly emphasizes that the process

of osmosis is necessary for the eels’ transition from:

A. shallower to deeper water.

B. feeding to nonfeeding.

C. immature to mature form.

D. elver to yellow eel.

40. According to the passage, which of the following char-

acteristics of the eel larvae found by Schmidt provided

the best evidence that the larvae were hatched in the

Sargasso Sea?

F. Size

G. Shape

H. Color

J. Species

ACT-67C-PRACTICE

END OF TEST 3

STOP! DO NOT TURN THE PAGE UNTIL TOLD TO DO SO.

DO NOT RETURN TO A PREVIOUS TEST.

Passage I

Finch beak depth (see Figure 1) is an inheritable trait

(it can be passed from parents to offspring).

Figure 1

Researchers studied the beak depth of 2 species of

finches, Geospiza fortis and Geospiza fuliginosa. Both

species live on Island A. G. fortis alone lives on Island B,

and G. fuliginosa alone lives on Island C. For both species,

the primary food is seeds. Birds with shallower beaks can

efficiently crush and eat only small seeds. Birds with

deeper beaks can crush and eat both large and small seeds,

but they prefer small seeds.

Study 1

Researchers captured 100 G. fortis finches and

100 G. fuliginosa finches on Island A. They tagged each

bird, measured its beak depth, and released it. Then they

calculated the percent of birds having each of the beak

depths that had been measured. The researchers followed

the same procedures with 100 G. fortis finches from

Island B and 100 G. fuliginosa finches from Island C. The

results of this study are shown in Figure 2.

Figure 2

Study 2

After completing Study 1, the researchers returned to

Island B each of the next 10 years, from 1976 to 1985.

During each visit, the researchers captured at least

50 G. fortis finches and measured their beak depths. Then

percent of captured

finches from Island C

1716151413121110987

beak depth (mm)

G. fuliginosa

percent of captured

finches from Island A

1716151413121110987

G. fuliginosa

G. fortis

percent of captured

finches from Island B

1716151413121110987

G. fortis

beak depth

SCIENCE TEST

35 Minutes—40 Questions

IRECTIONS: There are several passages in this test.

Each passage is followed by several questions. After

reading a passage, choose the best answer to each

question and fill in the corresponding oval on your

answer document. You may refer to the passages as

often as necessary.

You are NOT permitted to use a calculator on this test.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

ACT-67C-PRACTICE

they calculated the average G. fortis beak depth for each of

the 10 years. The researchers noted that, during the 10-year

period, 3 years were exceptionally dry, and 1 year was very

wet (see Figure 3). Small seeds are abundant during wet

years. During dry years, all seeds are less abundant, and

the average size of the available seeds is larger.

Figure 3

Figures adapted from Neil A. Campbell, Jane B. Reece, and

Lawrence G. Mitchell,

Biology

Cummings.

1. Based on the results of Study 1, the highest percent of

finches on Island B and Island C had a beak depth of:

Island B Island C

A. 8 mm 8 mm

B. 9 mm 12 mm

C. 10 mm 8 mm

D. 10 mm 10 mm

2. During which of the following years were small seeds

likely most abundant on Island B ?

F. 1977

G. 1980

H. 1982

J. 1984

3. Study 1 differed from Study 2 in which of the follow-

ing ways?

A. G. fortis finches were captured during Study 1 but

not during Study 2.

B. G. fuliginosa finches were captured during Study 1

but not during Study 2.

C. The beak depth of captured birds was measured

during Study 1 but not during Study 2.

D. The beak depth of captured birds was measured

during Study 2 but not during Study 1.

4. It is most likely that the researchers tagged the birds

that they captured during Study 1 to:

F. determine how beak depth was affected by rainfall

on Island A.

G. determine the average age of each finch population.

H. ensure that the beak depth of each finch was mea-

sured multiple times during Study 1.

J. ensure that the beak depth of each finch was mea-

sured only once during Study 1.

5. Based on the results of Study 2, would a finch with a

beak depth of 9.4 mm or a finch with a beak depth of

9.9 mm more likely have had a greater chance of sur-

vival during 1977 ?

A. A finch with a beak depth of 9.4 mm, because, on

average, the size of available seeds is larger during

dry years.

B. A finch with a beak depth of 9.4 mm, because, on

average, the size of available seeds is smaller

during dry years.

C. A finch with a beak depth of 9.9 mm, because, on

average, the size of available seeds is larger during

dry years.

D. A finch with a beak depth of 9.9 mm, because, on

average, the size of available seeds is smaller

during dry years.

6. A researcher hypothesized that there would be more

variation in the beak depths measured for the G. fortis

finches when they were forced to compete with

another finch species for seeds. Do the results of

Study 1 support this hypothesis?

F. Yes; the range of beak depths measured for

G. fortis finches was greater on Island A than on

Island B.

G. Yes; the range of beak depths measured for

G. fortis finches was greater on Island B than on

Island A.

H. No; the range of beak depths measured for

G. fortis finches was greater on Island A than on

Island B.

J. No; the range of beak depths measured for

G. fortis finches was greater on Island B than on

Island A.

average beak depth (mm)

9.9

9.8

9.7

9.6

9.5

9.4

9.3

9.2

1976

1977

978

1979

1980

1981

1982

1983

1984

1985

year

dry dry dry

wet

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

ACT-67C-PRACTICE

Passage II

Substances in the atmosphere, such as Cu

, Zn

, Cl

−

and SO

−

ions, are carried down to Earth’s surface by

precipitation. This process is known as wet deposition.

and Zn

ions are put into the atmosphere by high-

temperature combustion processes. The presence of Cl

−

and SO

2−

ions in the atmosphere can be attributed to road-

salt dust and electrical power generation, respectively.

Study 1

A rain gauge, placed on the roof of a 1-story building,

at a specific urban site was used to collect precipitation

over a 12-month period. At the same time each evening,

the amount of precipitation in the rain gauge was recorded,

after which the collected precipitation was emptied from

the gauge and stored. (Assume no measurable evaporation

occurred during any day.) Figure 1 shows the measured

monthly precipitation in centimeters.

Figure 1

At the end of each month, all the samples collected

during that month were mixed, and some of this combined

sample was analyzed for the concentrations of Cu

and

ions. Using these data, the monthly wet deposition of

each substance, in micrograms (µ g) per meter

, was calcu-

lated (see Figure 2).

Figure 2

Study 2

Another portion of the combined sample for each

month was analyzed for the concentrations of Cl

−

and

2−

ions. Using these data, the monthly wet deposition

of each substance, in milliequivalents (meq) per m

, was

calculated (see Figure 3).

Figure 3

Study 3

The annual wet deposition of Cu

and of Zn

for the

12-month period, in µg/m

, was calculated for the urban

site (the source of the Cu

and Zn

) and also for Rural

Sites 1 and 2, located 50 km and 100 km east, respectively,

of the urban site (see Figure 4).

Figure 4

Figures adapted from Kathryn Conko et al., “Atmospheric Wet

Deposition of Trace Elements to a Suburban Environment, Reston,

4,000

3,000

2,000

1,000

800

600

400

200

annual wet deposition (µg/m

)

urban site

Rural Site 1

Rural Site 2

Key

ion

JFMAMJJASOND

month

2.0

1.5

1.0

0.5

2.0

1.5

1.0

0.5

monthly wet

deposition (meq/m

)

monthly wet

deposition (meq/m

)

−

2−

month

800

600

400

200

FMAM J J ASOND

800

600

400

200

150

100

150

100

monthly wet

deposition (µg/m

)

monthly wet

deposition (µg/m

)

JASOND

month

monthly

precipitation (cm)

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

ACT-67C-PRACTICE

7. According to Figure 1, over the 12-month period, the

monthly precipitation at the urban site was maximum

in February and minimum in July. According to

Figures 2 and 3, the wet deposition of which ion was

also maximum in February and minimum in July?

A. Cu

B. Zn

C. Cl

−

D. SO

2−

8. Based on the results of Study 1, the average monthly

wet deposition for Cu

over the 12-month period was:

F. less than 50 µg/m

G. between 50 µg/m

and 75 µg/m

H. between 75 µg/m

and 100 µg/m

J. greater than 100 µ g/m

9. Is the statement “The values for Cl

−

wet deposition

were greater during the winter and early spring when

road salt is typically applied” supported by the results

of Study 2 ?

A. Yes, because Cl

−

wet deposition values were, on

average, greater from November to April than they

were from May to October.

B. Yes, because Cl

−

wet deposition values were, on

average, less from November to April than they

were from May to October.

C. No, because Cl

−

wet deposition values were, on

average, greater from November to April than they

were from May to October.

D. No, because Cl

−

wet deposition values were, on

average, less from November to April than they

were from May to October.

10. Suppose there had been no precipitation during

1 entire month of the 12-month period. Based on the

information provided, during that month there would

have been:

F. significant wet deposition of all 4 substances.

G. significant wet deposition of Cu

and Zn

, but no

wet deposition of Cl

−

and SO

−

H. no wet deposition of any of the 4 substances.

J. no wet deposition of Cu

and Zn

, but significant

wet deposition of Cl

−

and SO

2−

11. According to Study 3, as distance from the urban site

increased, the annual wet deposition:

A. increased for both Cu

and Zn

B. increased for Cu

but decreased for Zn

C. decreased for both Cu

and Zn

D. remained the same for both Cu

and Zn

12. Which of the following variables was kept constant in

Study 2 ?

F. Site

G. Monthly rainfall

H. Wet deposition of Zn

J. Wet deposition of Cl

−

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

ACT-67C-PRACTICE

Passage III

Cloud cover is the percent of Earth’s surface covered

by clouds. Cloud cover may increase because of an

increase in the cosmic ray flux (number of high-energy par-

ticles from space reaching Earth per m

per hour). Table 1

shows how Earth’s cover of low clouds (0 km to 3.2 km

altitude) varies with the cosmic ray flux. Figures 1−3 show

the relative cosmic ray flux, RCRF (the percent below the

flux measured on October 1, 1965), and the monthly aver-

age cover of high clouds (6.0 km to 16.0 km altitude),

middle clouds (3.2 km to 6.0 km altitude), and low clouds,

respectively, from January 1980 to January 1995.

Table 1 adapted from E. Palle Bagó and C. J. Butler, “The Influence

by Institute of Physics Publications, Ltd.

Figure 1

Figure 2

Figure 3

Figures adapted from Nigel Marsh and Henrik Svensmark, “Low

American Physical Society.

Jan.

1980

Jan.

1985

Jan.

1990

Jan.

1995

RCRF (%)

27.5

28.0

28.5

29.0

29.5

year

monthly average

cover of low clouds (%)

monthly average cover of clouds

RCRF

Key

Jan.

1980

Jan.

1985

Jan.

1990

Jan.

1995

RCRF (%)

19.0

19.5

20.0

20.5

21.0

year

monthly average

cover of middle clouds (%)

onthly average cover of clouds

RCRF

Key

Jan.

1980

Jan.

1985

Jan.

1990

Jan.

1995

RCRF (%)

monthly average

cover of high clouds (%)

12.5

13.0

13.5

14.0

14.5

year

monthly average cover of clouds

RCRF

Key

Table 1

Cosmic ray flux

(particles/m

/hr)

Cover of low clouds

(%)

340,000 27.8

360,000 28.1

380,000 28.4

400,000 28.7

420,000 29.0

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

ACT-67C-PRACTICE

13. The percent of Earth’s surface covered by high clouds

in January 1987 was closest to which of the following?

A. 13.0%

B. 13.5%

C. 14.0%

D. 14.5%

14. Based on Table 1, a cosmic ray flux of 440,000 parti-

cles/m

/hr would correspond to a cover of low clouds

that is closest to which of the following?

F. 28.7%

G. 29.0%

H. 29.3%

J. 29.6%

15. Is the statement “The monthly average cover of low

clouds is more directly correlated with cosmic ray flux

than is the monthly average cover of high clouds” con-

sistent with Figures 1 and 3 ?

A. Yes, because the plot for the monthly average

cover of low clouds more closely parallels the plot

for RCRF.

B. Yes, because the plot for the monthly average

cover of high clouds more closely parallels the

plot for RCRF.

C. No, because the plot for the monthly average cover

of low clouds more closely parallels the plot for

RCRF.

D. No, because the plot for the monthly average cover

of high clouds more closely parallels the plot for

RCRF.

16. Which of the following figures best represents the

monthly average cover of high, middle, and low clouds

in January 1992 ?

17. High clouds are composed primarily of ice crystals,

whereas low clouds are composed primarily of water

droplets. This difference is most likely because the

average air temperature at altitudes from:

A. 0 km to 3.2 km is at or below 0°C, whereas the

average air temperature at altitudes from 3.2 km to

6.0 km is above 0°C.

B. 0 km to 3.2 km is at or below 0°C, whereas the

average air temperature at altitudes from 6.0 km to

16.0 km is above 0°C.

C. 0 km to 3.2 km is above 0°C, whereas the average

air temperature at altitudes from 3.2 km to 6.0 km

is at or below 0°C.

D. 0 km to 3.2 km is above 0°C, whereas the average

air temperature at altitudes from 6.0 km to 16.0 km

is at or below 0°C.

cloud cover

w c

middle clouds

cloud cover

high clouds

low clouds

clouds

cloud cover

low clouds

middle c

cloud cover

high clouds

w c

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

ACT-67C-PRACTICE

Passage IV

Acid-base titration is a technique in which precise

volumes of a titrant (an acid or base solution) are added

incrementally to a known volume of a sample solution (a

base or acid solution, respectively). This process can be

monitored by adding an acid-base indicator (a substance

that changes color over a certain pH range) to the sample

solution or by measuring the sample solution’s conductiv-

ity. Conductivity (measured in kilosiemens per centimeter,

kS/cm) is a measure of a substance’s ability to conduct

electricity.

Two titration experiments were done at 25°C using a

0.10 M sodium hydroxide (NaOH) solution and either a

0.0010 M hydrochloric acid (HCl) solution or a 0.0010 M

acetic acid solution (where M is moles of acid or base per

liter of solution). All solutions were aqueous. An acid-base

indicator solution of nitrazine yellow was also used.

Nitrazine yellow is yellow if the pH is less than 6.0 or blue

if the pH is greater than 7.0.

Experiment 1

A drop of nitrazine yellow solution was added to a

flask containing 100.0 mL of the HCl solution. A probe

that measures conductivity was placed in the solution. The

NaOH solution was slowly added to the HCl solution in

small increments. After each addition, the HCl solution

was stirred and then the solution’s color and conductivity

were recorded (see Figure 1).

Figure 1

Experiment 2

Experiment 1 was repeated, except that the acetic acid

solution was used instead of the HCl solution (see Figure 2).

Figure 2

Figures adapted from J. West Loveland, “Conductance and Oscil-

lometry,” in Gary D. Christian and James E. O’Reilly, eds.,

Instru-

mental Analysis

18. In Experiment 1, the sample solution was yellow at

which of the following values for the volume of titrant

added?

F. 0.80 mL

G. 1.20 mL

H. 1.60 mL

J. 2.00 mL

19. In Experiment 2, the sample solution was neutral at

which of the following values for the volume of titrant

added?

A. 0.50 mL

B. 1.00 mL

C. 1.50 mL

D. 2.00 mL

volume of titrant added (mL)

2.001.501.000.500.00

3.5

3.0

2.5

2.0

1.5

1.0

0.5

0.0

onduc

tivity (kS/c

color was green as

the volume of titrant

added increased from

0.95 mL to 1.00 mL

yellow

green

blue

Key

volume of titrant added (mL)

conductivity (kS/cm)

yellow

blue

Key

2.001.50

4.5

4.0

3.5

3.0

2.5

2.0

1.5

1.0

1.000.500.00

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

ACT-67C-PRACTICE

20. In Experiment 1, if 2.30 mL of titrant had been added

to the sample solution, the conductivity would most

likely have been:

F. less than 0.80 kS/cm.

G. between 0.80 kS/cm and 2.30 kS/cm.

H. between 2.30 kS/cm and 3.80 kS/cm.

J. greater than 3.80 kS/cm.

21. In Experiment 2, which solution was the titrant and

which solution was the sample solution?

titrant sample solution

A. acetic acid NaOH

B. HCl NaOH

C. NaOH acetic acid

D. NaOH HCl

22. In Experiments 1 and 2, the probe that was placed in

the sample solution most likely did which of the

following?

F. Cooled the solution to its freezing point

G. Heated the solution to its boiling point

H. Detected the concentration of nitrazine yellow in

the solution

J. Passed an electrical current through a portion of

the solution

23. A chemist claimed that in Experiment 2, the pH of the

sample solution was greater at a value of 0.2 mL of

titrant added than at a value of 1.8 mL of titrant added.

Do the results of Experiment 2 support this claim?

A. No; at a value of 0.2 mL of titrant added, the

sample solution was yellow, and at a value of

1.8 mL of titrant added, the sample solution was

blue.

B. No; at a value of 0.2 mL of titrant added, the

sample solution was blue, and at a value of 1.8 mL

of titrant added, the sample solution was yellow.

C. Yes; at a value of 0.2 mL of titrant added, the

sample solution was yellow, and at a value of

1.8 mL of titrant added, the sample solution was

blue.

D. Yes; at a value of 0.2 mL of titrant added, the

sample solution was blue, and at a value of 1.8 mL

of titrant added, the sample solution was yellow.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

ACT-67C-PRACTICE

Passage V

An astronomy class is given the following facts about

stellar evolution.

1. A star’s evolution can be divided into 3 stages: pre-

main sequence (pre-MS), main sequence (MS), and

post-main sequence (post-MS).

2. Gravity causes part of a cloud of gas and dust to

collapse and heat up, creating a pre-MS star. The

star’s hot dust and gas emit its energy.

3. A pre-MS star becomes an MS star when the star

produces the majority of its energy by fusing

hydrogen nuclei (protons) at its center to make

helium nuclei.

4. An MS star becomes a post-MS star when the star

expands in volume and produces the majority of its

energy by fusing hydrogen to make helium in a

shell surrounding its center.

5. The more massive a star, the more rapidly the star

passes through each of the 3 stages of its evolution.

Two students discuss the evolution of the Algol

system—Algol A, a 3.6-solar-mass MS star; Algol B, a

0.8-solar-mass post-MS star; and Algol C, a 1.7-solar-mass

MS star. (One solar mass = the Sun’s mass.) The 3 stars

orbit a mutual center of mass, with Algol A and Algol B

much closer to each other and to the center of mass than to

Algol C.

Student 1

The 3 stars of the Algol system formed at the same

time from the same cloud of gas and dust. Algol B, origi-

nally the most massive of the 3 stars, became a post-MS

star and expanded in volume while Algol A remained an

MS star. Because the matter in the outer parts of Algol B

was more strongly attracted to Algol A than to the matter

in the inner parts of Algol B, this matter flowed from

Algol B to Algol A, and, over time, Algol A became more

massive than Algol B.

Student 2

Algol B was not part of the original Algol system

(Algol A and Algol C). Algol B and the original Algol

system formed in different clouds of gas and dust at differ-

ent times and moved in 2 different but intersecting orbits

around the center of the galaxy. During a particular orbit,

Algol B encountered the original Algol system at the inter-

section of the 2 orbits and became part of the Algol system.

Algol B became a post-MS star while Algol A and

Algol C remained MS stars. Algol B never lost mass to

Algol A. Algol B was always less massive than Algol A.

24. Based on Student 2’s discussion, Algol B is part of the

present Algol system because of which of the follow-

ing forces exerted on Algol B by the original Algol

system?

F. Electric force

G. Magnetic force

H. Gravitational force

J. Nuclear force

25. Based on Student 1’s discussion and Fact 4, while

matter flowed between Algol A and Algol B, Algol B

produced the majority of its energy by fusing:

A. hydrogen nuclei to make helium nuclei at its

center.

B. hydrogen nuclei to make helium nuclei in a shell

surrounding its center.

C. helium nuclei to make hydrogen nuclei at its

center.

D. helium nuclei to make hydrogen nuclei in a shell

surrounding its center.

26. Suppose that chemical composition is uniform among

stars formed from the same cloud of gas and dust, but

that chemical composition varies among stars formed

from different clouds of gas and dust. Student 2 would

most likely agree with which of the following state-

ments comparing the chemical compositions of the

stars in the present-day Algol system at the time they

formed?

F. Algol A and Algol B had the most similar

compositions.

G. Algol A and Algol C had the most similar

compositions.

H. Algol B and Algol C had the most similar

compositions.

J. Algol A, Algol B, and Algol C had the same

composition.

27. If the mass of the Sun is 2.0

kg, what is the mass

of Algol C ?

A. 1.6

B. 2.0

C. 3.4

D. 7.2

28. Which of the following statements best explains why

the reaction described in Fact 3 requires a high temper-

ature and pressure?

F. All protons are positively charged, and like

charges attract each other.

G. All protons are positively charged, and like

charges repel each other.

H. All electrons are negatively charged, and like

charges attract each other.

J. All electrons are negatively charged, and like

charges repel each other.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

ACT-67C-PRACTICE

29. Based on Fact 5 and Student 1’s discussion, which of

the 3 stars in the Algol system, if any, was most likely

the first to become an MS star?

A. Algol A

B. Algol B

C. Algol C

D. The 3 stars became MS stars at the same time.

30. Based on Fact 5, would Student 2 agree that by the

time Algol A stops being an MS star, Algol A will

have spent as much time being an MS star as Algol B

spent being an MS star?

F. Yes, because according to Student 2, Algol A has

always been more massive than Algol B.

G. Yes, because according to Student 2, Algol A has

always been less massive than Algol B.

H. No, because according to Student 2, Algol A has

always been more massive than Algol B.

J. No, because according to Student 2, Algol A has

always been less massive than Algol B.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

ACT-67C-PRACTICE

Passage VI

Three experiments were done using CO

, krypton

(Kr), or O

. For each gas:

1. A 3 L steel vessel was fitted with a cap that contained a

gas inlet valve and a pressure and temperature sensor.

2. Air was pumped out of the vessel until the pressure

measured 0.00 torr.

3. The vessel was placed on a balance, and the balance was

reset to 0.000 g.

4. Some of the gas was added to the vessel.

5. When the gas in the vessel reached room temperature

(22°C), mass and pressure were recorded.

6. Steps 4 and 5 were repeated several times.

The experiments were then repeated, except that a 6 L

vessel was used (see Figures 1 and 2).

Figure 1

Figure 2

31. Based on Figure 2, if 13 g of Kr had been added to the

6 L vessel, the pressure would have been:

A. less than 200 torr.

B. between 200 torr and 400 torr.

C. between 400 torr and 600 torr.

D. greater than 600 torr.

32. Suppose the experiments had been repeated, except

with a 5 L vessel. Based on Figures 1 and 2, the pres-

sure exerted by 7 g of CO

would most likely have

been:

F. less than 500 torr.

G. between 500 torr and 1,000 torr.

H. between 1,000 torr and 1,500 torr.

J. greater than 1,500 torr.

33. Based on Figures 1 and 2, for a given mass of O

22°C, how does the pressure exerted by the O

in a

6 L vessel compare to the pressure exerted by the O

a 3 L vessel? In the 6 L vessel, the O

pressure will be:

A. as great as in the 3 L vessel.

B. the same as in the 3 L vessel.

C. 2 times as great as in the 3 L vessel.

D. 4 times as great as in the 3 L vessel.

34. Which of the following best explains why equal

masses of O

and CO

at the same temperature and in

the same-size vessel had different pressures? The pres-

sure exerted by the O

was:

F. less, because there were fewer O

molecules per

gram than there were CO

molecules per gram.

G. less, because there were more O

molecules per

gram than there were CO

molecules per gram.

H. greater, because there were fewer O

molecules

per gram than there were CO

molecules per gram.

J. greater, because there were more O

molecules per

gram than there were CO

molecules per gram.

35. Suppose the experiment involving O

and the 6 L

vessel had been repeated, except at a room temperature

of 14°C. For a given mass of O

, compared to the pres-

sure measured in the original experiment, the pressure

measured at 14°C would have been:

A. less, because pressure is directly proportional to

temperature.

B. less, because pressure is inversely proportional to

temperature.

C. greater, because pressure is directly proportional

to temperature.

D. greater, because pressure is inversely proportional

to temperature.

pressure (torr)

1,000

800

600

400

200

86420

mass of gas added (g)

6 L vessel

pressure (torr)

2,000

1,600

1,200

800

400

86420

mass of gas added (g)

3 L vessel

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

ACT-67C-PRACTICE

Passage VII

The human threshold of hearing is the minimum

intensity at each sound frequency required for a sound to

be heard by humans. The human threshold of pain is the

maximum intensity at each sound frequency that humans

can tolerate without pain.

The figure below displays, for sounds in water and in

air, the human thresholds of hearing and of pain. The figure

also shows S, the percent increase in air density and water

density that accompanies the compression of air and water

by sound waves of given intensities. Sound intensities are

given in decibels (db) and frequencies are given in hertz

[(Hz); 1 Hz = 1 cycle/sec].

Figure adapted from Rita G. Lerner and George L. Trigg, eds.,

Encyclopedia of Physics

36. According to the figure, which of the following is clos-

est to the lowest frequency that can be heard by a

human being?

F. 00,008 Hz

G. 00,020 Hz

H. 01,000 Hz

J. 20,000 Hz

37. As humans age, it is common for selective hearing loss

to occur at high sound frequencies. Which of the fol-

lowing figures best illustrates this loss?

38. Based on the figure, a sound of a given frequency will

have the highest intensity for which of the following

sets of conditions?

Sound is passing through: 000S000

F. water 100%

G. water 010

–8

H. air 100%

J. air 010

–8

39. A student hypothesized that sounds of any intensity at

a frequency of 10

Hz would be painful for humans to

hear. Do the data in the figure support this hypothesis?

A. Yes, because the threshold of pain is relatively

constant with changes in frequency.

B. Yes, because as frequency increases above 10

Hz,

the threshold of pain increases.

C. No, because humans cannot hear sounds at 10

Hz.

D. No, because the threshold of pain is relatively con-

stant with changes in frequency.

40. Based on the figure, does S depend on the frequency of

a sound wave of a given intensity?

F. Yes, because as frequency increases, S increases.

G. Yes, because as frequency increases, S remains

constant.

H. No, because as frequency increases, S increases.

J. No, because as frequency increases, S remains

constant.

Key

before loss after loss

threshold

of hearing

intensity

frequency

threshold

of hearing

intensity

frequency

threshold

of hearing

intensity

frequency

threshold

of hearing

intensity

frequency

intensity (db)

frequency (Hz)

020406080100120140160180200220240

S = 10

–

S = 10

–

% S = 10

–

% S = 100%

threshold

of pain

threshold

of hearing

–20

Key

in air in water

ACT-67C-PRACTICE

END OF TEST 4

STOP! DO NOT RETURN TO ANY OTHER TEST.

[See Note on page 5.]

If you plan to take the ACT Plus Writing, sharpen your pencils and

continue with the Writing Test on page 53.

If you do not plan to take the ACT Plus Writing, skip to page 55 for

instructions on scoring your multiple-choice tests.

WRITING TEST

BOOKLET

Form 14R

Directions

This is a test of your writing skills. You will have thirty (30) minutes to write an

essay in English. Before you begin planning and writing your essay, read the

writing prompt carefully to understand exactly what you are being asked to do.

Your essay will be evaluated on the evidence it provides of your ability to

express judgments by taking a position on the issue in the writing prompt;

to maintain a focus on the topic throughout the essay; to develop a position by

using logical reasoning and by supporting your ideas; to organize ideas in a

logical way; and to use language clearly and effectively according to the

conventions of standard written English.

You may use the unlined pages in this test booklet to plan your essay. These

pages will not be scored. You must write your essay in pencil on the lined pages

in the answer folder. Your writing on those lined pages will be scored. You may

not need all the lined pages, but to ensure you have enough room to finish, do

NOT skip lines. You may write corrections or additions neatly between the lines

of your essay, but do NOT write in the margins of the lined pages. Illegible

essays cannot be scored, so you must write (or print) clearly.

If you finish before time is called, you may review your work. Lay your pencil

down immediately when time is called.

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL TOLD TO DO SO.

our Signature:

(Do not print.)

Print Your Name Here:

Your Date of Birth:

Month Day Year

You must take the multiple-choice tests before you take the Writing Test.

PO BOX 168

IOWA CITY, IA 52243-0168

NOTE: This test material is the confidential copyrighted property of

ACT, Inc., and may not be copied, reproduced, sold, or otherwise transferred

without the prior express written permission of ACT, Inc. Violators of ACT’s

copyrights are subject to civil and criminal penalties.

Practice Writing Test

ACT Writing Test Prompt

Note

• For your practice essay, you will need scratch paper to plan your essay and four lined sheets

of paper for your response.

• On test day, you will receive a test booklet with space to plan your essay and four lined

pages on which to write your response.

• Read pages 61–62 for information and instructions on scoring your practice Writing Test.

ACT-14R-PRACTICE

Rather than concentrating on doing one thing at a time, high

school students often divide their attention among several

activities, such as watching television and using the computer

while doing homework. Educators debate whether performing

several tasks at the same time is too distracting when students

are doing homework. Some educators believe multitasking is a

bad practice when doing homework because they think dividing

attention between multiple tasks negatively affects the quality

of students’ work. Other educators do not believe multitasking

is a bad practice when doing homework because they think

students accomplish more during their limited free time as a

result of multitasking. In your opinion, is it too distracting for

high school students to divide their attention among several

activities when they are doing homework?

In your essay, take a position on this question. You may write

about either one of the two points of view given, or you may

present a different point of view on this question. Use specific

reasons and examples to support your position.

5Scoring Your Tests

How to Score the

Multiple-Choice Tests

Follow the instructions below and on the following pages to

score your practice multiple-choice tests and review your

performance.

Raw Scores

The number of questions you answered correctly on each

test and in each subscore area is your raw score. Because

there are many forms of the ACT, each with different

questions, some forms will be slightly easier (and some

slightly harder) than others. A raw score of 67 on one form

of the English Test, for example, may be about as difficult

to earn as a raw score of 70 on another form of that test.

To compute your raw scores, check your answers with the

scoring keys on pages 56–57. Count the number of correct

answers for each of the four tests and seven subscore

areas, and enter the number in the blanks provided on

those pages. These numbers are your raw scores on the

tests and subscore areas.

Scale Scores

To adjust for the small differences that occur among

different forms of the ACT, the raw scores for tests and

subscore areas are converted into scale scores. Scale

scores are printed on the reports sent to you and your

college and scholarship choices.

When your raw scores are converted into scale scores, it

becomes possible to compare your scores with those of

examinees who took different test forms. For example, a

scale score of 26 on the English Test has the same meaning

regardless of the form of the ACT on which it is based.

To determine the scale scores corresponding to your raw

scores on the practice test, use the tables explaining

procedures used to obtain scale scores from raw scores on

pages 58–59. Table 1 on page 58 shows the raw-to-scale

score conversions for each test, and Table 2 on page 59

shows the raw-to-scale score conversions for the subscore

areas. Because each form of the ACT is unique, each form

has somewhat different conversion tables. Consequently,

these tables provide only approximations of the raw-to-scale

score conversions that would apply if a different form of the

ACT were taken. Therefore, the scale scores obtained from

the practice tests don’t match precisely the scale scores

received from an actual administration of the ACT.

Computing the Composite Score

The Composite score is the average of the four scale scores

in English, Mathematics, Reading, and Science. If you left

any of these tests blank, do not calculate a Composite score.

If you take the ACT Plus Writing, your Writing results do not

affect your Composite score.

Comparing Your Scores

You may want to know how your scores compare to the

scores of other students who took the ACT.

Table 3A on page 60 lets you compare your scores on the

practice multiple-choice tests with the scores of recent high

school graduates who took the ACT. The numbers reported

are cumulative percents. A cumulative percent is the

percent of students who scored at or below a given score.

If a Composite score of 20 has a cumulative percent of 48,

this means that 48% of students had a Composite score of

0 or lower.

Your scores and percent at or below are only estimates of the

scores that you will receive during an actual administration of

the ACT. Test scores are only one indicator of your level of

learning. Consider your scores in connection with your

grades, your performance in outside activities, and your

career interests.

College Readiness Standards

The College Readiness Standards describe the types of

skills, strategies, and understandings you will need to make

a successful transition from high school to college. For

English, Mathematics, Reading, and Science, standards

are provided for six score ranges that reflect the

progression and complexity of the skills in each of the

academic areas measured by the ACT tests. For Writing,

standards are provided for five score ranges. The College

Readiness Standards and benchmark scores for each test

can be found at www.act.org/standard and

www.act.org/education/benchmarks.html.

Reviewing Your

Performance on the Practice

Multiple-Choice Tests

Consider the following as you review your scores.

• Did you run out of time? Reread the information in this

booklet on pacing yourself. You may need to adjust the

way you use your time in responding to the questions.

• Did you spend too much time trying to understand the

directions for the tests? The directions for the practice

tests are the same directions that will appear in your test

booklet on test day. Make sure you understand them

before test day.

•

Review the questions that you missed. Did you select a

response that was an incomplete answer or that did not

directly respond to the question being asked? Try to figure

out what you overlooked in answering the questions.

• Did a particular type of question confuse you? Did the

questions you missed come from a particular subscore

area? In reviewing your responses, check to see whether

a particular type of question or a particular subscore

area was more difficult for you.

Subscore

Area*

Key EA AG GT

1. A ___

2. F ___

3. E ___

4. J ___

5. C ___

6. K ___

7. E ___

8. H ___

9. A ___

10. J ___

11. D ___

12. K ___

13. B ___

14. F ___

15. C ___

16. J ___

17. B ___

18. J ___

19. D ___

20. J ___

21. E ___

22. G ___

23. B ___

24. H ___

25. A ___

26. G ___

27. B ___

28. H ___

29. E ___

30. K ___

31. E ___

32. G ___

33. D ___

34. F ___

Subscore

Area*

Key EA AG GT

35. D ___

36. F ___

37. B ___

38. G ___

39. C ___

40. G ___

41. B ___

42. F ___

43. D ___

44. H ___

45. A ___

46. J ___

47. C ___

48. H ___

49. B ___

50. F ___

51. C ___

52. J ___

53. E ___

54. K ___

55. C ___

56. J ___

57. E ___

58. G ___

59. C ___

60. F ___

Number Correct (Raw Score) for:

Pre-Alg./Elem. Alg. (EA) Subscore Area _______

(24)

Inter. Alg./Coord. Geo. (AG) Subscore Area _______

(18)

Plane Geo./Trig. (GT) Subscore Area _______

(18)

Total Number Correct for Math Test (EA + AG + GT) _______

(60)

*EA = Pre-Algebra/Elementary Algebra

AG = Intermediate Algebra/Coordinate Geometry

GT = Plane Geometry/Trigonometry 1267C

coring Keys for the ACT Practice Tests

se the scoring key for each test to score your answer document for the multiple-choice tests. Mark a “1” in the

blank for each question you answered correctly. Add up the numbers in each subscore area and enter the total

number correct for each subscore area in the blanks provided. Also enter the total number correct for each test in

the blanks provided. The total number correct for each test is the sum of the number correct in each subscore area.

Test 1: English—Scoring Key Test 2: Mathematics—Scoring Key

Subscore

Area*

Key UM RH

1. B ___

2. J ___

3. D ___

4. F ___

5. B ___

6. J ___

7. D ___

8. F ___

9. A ___

10. H ___

11. A ___

12. H ___

13. D ___

14. G ___

15. B ___

16. G ___

17. C ___

18. G ___

19. D ___

20. F ___

21. B ___

22. J ___

23. C ___

24. F ___

25. C ___

26. G ___

27. A ___

28. G ___

29. C ___

30. J ___

31. B ___

32. J ___

33. D ___

34. H ___

35. B ___

36. H ___

37. C ___

38. F ___

Subscore

Area*

Key UM RH

39. C ___

40. J ___

41. B ___

42. F ___

43. B ___

44. J ___

45. A ___

46. J ___

47. C ___

48. F ___

49. B ___

50. F ___

51. B ___

52. J ___

53. D ___

54. H ___

55. A ___

56. H ___

57. B ___

58. H ___

59. A ___

60. G ___

61. A ___

62. H ___

63. A ___

64. H ___

65. D ___

66. G ___

67. A ___

68. J ___

69. A ___

70. G ___

71. D ___

72. J ___

73. C ___

74. G ___

75. D ___

Number Correct (Raw Score) for:

Usage/Mechanics (UM) Subscore Area _______

(40)

Rhetorical Skills (RH) Subscore Area _______

(35)

Total Number Correct for English Test _______

(UM + RH) (75)

*UM = Usage/Mechanics

RH = Rhetorical Skills 1267C

Test 3: Reading—Scoring Key

Subscore

Area*

Key SS AL

1. D ______

2. H ______

. B ______

4. G ______

5. B ______

6. F ______

7. C ______

8. F ______

9. D ______

10. H ______

11. C ______

12. F ______

13. C ______

14. G ______

Subscore

Area*

Key SS AL

15. D ______

16. H ______

7. B ______

18. J ______

19. A ______

20. F ______

21. C ______

22. J ______

23. A ______

24. J ______

25. C ______

26. F ______

27. C ______

28. J ______

Subscore

Area*

Key SS AL

29. A ______

30. F ______

1. B ______

32. H ______

33. D ______

34. J ______

35. B ______

36. G ______

37. B ______

38. F ______

39. A ______

40. F ______

Number Correct (Raw Score) for:

Social Studies/Sciences (SS) Subscore Area _______

(20)

Arts/Literature (AL) Subscore Area _______

(20)

Total Number Correct for Reading Test (SS + AL) _______

(40)

*SS = Social Studies/Sciences

AL = Arts/Literature

Test 4: Science—Scoring Key

Key

1. D ______

2. J ______

3. B ______

4. J ______

5. C ______

6. F ______

7. D ______

8. G ______

9. A ______

10. H ______

11. C ______

12. F ______

13. B ______

14. H ______

Key

15. A ______

16. G ______

17. D ______

18. F ______

19. B ______

20. J ______

21. C ______

22. J ______

23. A ______

24. H ______

25. B ______

26. G ______

27. C ______

28. G ______

Key

29. B ______

30. H ______

31. C ______

32. G ______

33. A ______

34. J ______

35. A ______

36. G ______

37. A ______

38. F ______

39. C ______

40. J ______

Number Correct (Raw Score) for:

Total Number Correct for Science Test _______

(40)

1267C

TABLE 1

xplanation of Procedures Used to Obtain Scale Scores from Raw Scores

On each of the four multiple-choice tests on which you

marked any responses, the total number of correct

responses yields a raw score. Use the table below to convert

your raw scores to scale scores. For each test, locate and

circle your raw score or the range of raw scores that includes

it in the table below. Then, read across to either outside

olumn of the table and circle the scale score that

corresponds to that raw score. As you determine your scale

scores, enter them in the blanks provided on the right. The

highest possible scale score for each test is 36. The lowest

possible scale score for any test on which you marked any

responses is 1.

Next, compute the Composite score by averaging the four

scale scores. To do this, add your four scale scores and

divide the sum by 4. If the resulting number ends in a

fraction, round it to the nearest whole number. (Round down

any fraction less than one-half; round up any fraction that is

one-half or more.) Enter this number in the blank. This is your

Composite score. The highest possible Composite score is

36. The lowest possible Composite score is 1.

ACT Test 67C Your Scale Score

nglish ________

Mathematics ________

Reading ________

Science ________

Sum of scores ________

Composite score (sum ÷ 4) ________

NOTE: If you left a test completely blank and marked no

items, do not list a scale score for that test. If any test was

completely blank, do not calculate a Composite score.

1267C

Raw Scores

Scale

Score

Test 1

English

73-74

71-72

64-65

62-63

60-61

58-59

56-57

53-55

51-52

48-50

45-47

42-44

40-41

38-39

35-37

33-34

30-32

27-28

25-26

23-24

20-22

17-19

14-16

11-13

09-10

6-8

3-4

0-2

Test 2

Mathematics

59-60

57-58

55-56

50-51

47-48

45-46

43-44

41-42

38-40

36-37

34-35

31-32

29-30

27-28

24-26

19-23

15-18

12-14

10-11

8-9

6-7

—

Test 3

Reading

—

27-28

23-24

20-21

16-17

14-15

11-12

09-10

—

Test 4

Science

—

31-32

28-29

26-27

24-25

21-22

19-20

17-18

14-15

—

Scale

Score

Explanation of Procedures Used to Obtain

Scale Subscores from Raw Scores

For each of the seven subscore areas, the total number of correct

responses yields a raw score. Use the table below to convert your raw

scores to scale subscores. For each of the seven subscore areas,

locate and circle either the raw score or the range of raw scores that

includes it in the table below. Then, read across to either outside

column of the table and circle the scale subscore that corresponds to

that raw score. As you determine your scale subscores, enter them in

the blanks provided on the right. The highest possible scale subscore

is 18. The lowest possible scale subscore is 1.

If you left a test completely blank and marked no responses, do not list

any scale subscores for that test.

ACT Test 67C Your Scale Subscore

English

Usage/Mechanics ________

Rhetorical Skills ________

Mathematics

Pre-Algebra/Elementary Algebra ________

Intermed. Algebra/Coord. Geometry ________

Plane Geometry/Trigonometry ________

Reading

Social Studies/Sciences ________

Arts/Literature ________

TABLE 2

1267C

Scale

Subscore

Usage/

Mechanics

39-40

37-38

35-36

32-33

29-30

27-28

24-26

22-23

20-21

18-19

16-17

14-15

12-13

09-11

6-8

0-5

Rhetorical

Skills

31-32

29-30

27-28

25-26

22-24

20-21

18-19

15-17

13-14

10-11

8-9

5-7

3-4

0-2

Pre-Algebra/

Elem. Algebra

23-24

13-14

11-12

09-10

6-8

3-4

Inter. Algebra/

Coord. Geometry

13-14

10-11

7-8

4-5

—

Plane Geometry/

Trigonometry

14-15

11-12

7-8

—

Social Studies/

Sciences

12-13

09-10

6-7

Arts/

Literature

18-19

—

6-7

3-4

0-1

Scale

Subscore

Raw Scores

Test 1 English Test 2 Mathematics Test 3 Reading

National Distributions of Cumulative Percents for ACT Test Scores

ACT-Tested High School Graduates from 2011, 2012, and 2013

Score

ENGLISH

Usage/Mechanics

Rhetorical Skills

MATHEMATICS

Pre-Algebra/Elem. Alg.

Alg./Coord. Geometry

Plane Geometry/Trig.

READING

Soc. Studies/Sciences

Arts/Literature

SCIENCE

COMPOSITE

Score

36 99 99 99 99 99 36

35 99 99 99 99 99 35

34 99 99 99 99 99 34

33 97 98 97 99 99 33

32 96 97 95 98 98 32

31 94 96 93 97 97 31

30 92 95 90 96 95 30

29 90 93 87 95 93 29

28 88 91 85 93 90 28

27 85 88 82 90 87 27

26 82 84 79 87 83 26

25 78 79 75 83 79 25

24 74 73 72 77 74 24

23 68 67 66 70 68 23

22 63 60 61 63 62 22

21 57 55 55 56 55 21

20 50 51 48 47 49 20

19 44 47 42 38 42 19

18 39 99 99 41 99 99 99 36 99 99 32 35 18

17 34 97 98 35 96 99 99 30 97 97 25 28 17

16 30 92 98 26 92 98 98 25 93 92 20 22 16

15 25 88 92 14 88 95 95 20 87 86 16 17 15

14 19 83 86 06 82 91 90 15 82 79 12 11 14

13 15 78 79 02 75 83 82 11 76 73 09 07 13

12 12 72 71 01 66 72 73 07 68 66 06 03 12

11 09 65 60 01 58 63 62 04 58 58 04 01 11

10 06 56 49 01 48 50 51 02 49 49 02 01 10

09 04 44 40 01 40 36 38 01 40 40 01 01 09

08 02 36 28 01 33 23 25 01 29 32 01 01 08

07 01 28 20 01 22 13 15 01 20 23 01 01 07

06 01 20 13 01 10 07 09 01 11 17 01 01 06

05 01 13 09 01 04 04 05 01 06 10 01 01 05

04 01 08 05 01 01 02 03 01 02 04 01 01 04

03 01 04 02 01 01 01 01 01 01 02 01 01 03

02 01 01 01 01 01 01 01 01 01 01 01 01 02

01 01 01 01 01 01 01 01 01 01 01 01 01 01

Mean 20.4 10.2 10.5 21.0 10.9 10.6 10.5 21.2 10.8 10.7 20.8 21.0

S.D. 6.5 4.0 3.5 5.3 3.6 2.9 3.1 6.2 3.6 3.9 5.2 5.3

Note: These norms are the source of national norms, for multiple-choice tests, printed on ACT score reports during the

2013–2014 testing year. Sample size: 5,088,372.

Use the norms tables below (3A and 3B) to determine

your estimated percent at or below for each of your

multiple-choice scale scores (3A), and for your Writing

scores (3B), if applicable.

In the far left column of the multiple-choice norms table

(3A), circle your scale score for the English Test (from

page 56). Then read across to the percent at or below

column for that test; circle or put a check mark beside

the corresponding percent at or below. Use the same

procedure for each test and subscore area. Use the far

right column of scale scores in Table 3A, for your Science

Test and Composite scores. Follow the same procedure

on the Writing Test norms to get your estimated percent

at or below for your Writing subscore and Combined

English/Writing score.

As you mark your percents at or below, enter them in the

blanks provided at the right. You may also find it helpful to

compare your performance with the national mean (average)

score for each of the tests, subscore areas, and the

Composite as shown at the bottom of the norms tables.

our Estimated

Percent At or Below

on Practice Test

English ________

Usage/Mechanics ________

Rhetorical Skills ________

athematics ________

Pre-Algebra/Elem. Alg. ________

Alg./Coord. Geometry ________

Plane Geometry/Trig. ________

Reading ________

Soc. Studies/Sciences ________

Arts/Literature ________

Science ________

Composite ________

Combined English/Writing ________

Writing ________

TABLES 3A and 3B

Norms Tables

National Distributions of Cumulative Percents

for ACT Writing Test Scores

ACT-Tested High School Graduates

from 2011, 2012, and 2013

Combined

Score English/Writing Writing

36 99

35 99

34 99

33 99

32 99

31 98

30 95

29 93

28 90

27 87

26 84

25 79

24 75

23 70

22 61

21 55

20 47

19 41

18 35

17 30

16 25

15 19

14 15

13 11

12 999

11 699

10 499

9 395

8 288

7 152

6 138

5 112

4 17

3 13

2 12

1 1

Mean 20.7 7.0

S.D. 5.8 1.6

Note: These norms are the source of the Writing Test

norms printed on the ACT score reports of students who

take the optional Writing Test during 2013–2014. Sample

size: 2,778,952.

Score = 6—Essays within this score range demonstrate effective skill

in responding to the task.

The essay shows a clear understanding of the task. The essay takes a

position on the issue and may offer a critical context for discussion. The

essay addresses complexity by examining different perspectives on the

issue, or by evaluating the implications and/or complications of the issue,

or by fully responding to counterarguments to the writer’s position.

Development of ideas is ample, specific, and logical. Most ideas are

fully elaborated. A clear focus on the specific issue in the prompt is

maintained. The organization of the essay is clear: the organization may

be somewhat predictable or it may grow from the writer’s purpose. Ideas

are logically sequenced. Most transitions reflect the writer’s logic and are

usually integrated into the essay. The introduction and conclusion are

effective, clear, and well developed. The essay shows a good command

of language. Sentences are varied and word choice is varied and

precise. There are few, if any, errors to distract the reader.

Score = 5—Essays within this score range demonstrate competent

skill in responding to the task.

The essay shows a clear understanding of the task. The essay takes a

position on the issue and may offer a broad context for discussion. The

essay shows recognition of complexity by partially evaluating the

implications and/or complications of the issue, or by responding to

counterarguments to the writer’s position. Development of ideas is

specific and logical. Most ideas are elaborated, with clear movement

between general statements and specific reasons, examples, and

details. Focus on the specific issue in the prompt is maintained. The

organization of the essay is clear, although it may be predictable. Ideas

are logically sequenced, although simple and obvious transitions may be

used. The introduction and conclusion are clear and generally well

developed. Language is competent. Sentences are somewhat varied and

word choice is sometimes varied and precise. There may be a few errors,

but they are rarely distracting.

Score = 4—Essays within this score range demonstrate adequate

skill in responding to the task.

The essay shows an understanding of the task. The essay takes a

position on the issue and may offer some context for discussion. The

essay may show some recognition of complexity by providing some

response to counterarguments to the writer’s position. Development of

ideas is adequate, with some movement between general statements

and specific reasons, examples, and details. Focus on the specific

issue in the prompt is maintained throughout most of the essay. The

organization of the essay is apparent but predictable. Some evidence of

logical sequencing of ideas is apparent, although most transitions are

simple and obvious. The introduction and conclusion are clear and

somewhat developed. Language is adequate, with some sentence

variety and appropriate word choice. There may be some distracting

errors, but they do not impede understanding.

Score = 3—Essays within this score range demonstrate some

developing skill in responding to the task.

The essay shows some understanding of the task. The essay takes a

position on the issue but does not offer a context for discussion. The

essay may acknowledge a counterargument to the writer’s position, but

its development is brief or unclear. Development of ideas is limited and

may be repetitious, with little, if any, movement between general

statements and specific reasons, examples, and details. Focus on the

general topic is maintained, but focus on the specific issue in the prompt

may not be maintained. The organization of the essay is simple. Ideas

are logically grouped within parts of the essay, but there is little or no

evidence of logical sequencing of ideas. Transitions, if used, are simple

and obvious. An introduction and conclusion are clearly discernible but

underdeveloped. Language shows a basic control. Sentences show a

little variety and word choice is appropriate. Errors may be distracting

and may occasionally impede understanding.

Score = 2—Essays within this score range demonstrate inconsistent

or weak skill in responding to the task.

The essay shows a weak understanding of the task. The essay may not

take a position on the issue, or the essay may take a position but fail to

convey reasons to support that position, or the essay may take a position

but fail to maintain a stance. There is little or no recognition of a

counterargument to the writer’s position. The essay is thinly developed.

If examples are given, they are general and may not be clearly relevant.

The essay may include extensive repetition of the writer’s ideas or of

ideas in the prompt. Focus on the general topic is maintained, but focus

on the specific issue in the prompt may not be maintained. There is

some indication of an organizational structure, and some logical

grouping of ideas within parts of the essay is apparent. Transitions, if

used, are simple and obvious, and they may be inappropriate or

misleading. An introduction and conclusion are discernible but minimal.

Sentence structure and word choice are usually simple. Errors may be

frequently distracting and may sometimes impede understanding.

Score = 1—Essays within this score range show little or no skill in

responding to the task.

The essay shows little or no understanding of the task. If the essay takes

a position, it fails to convey reasons to support that position. The essay is

minimally developed. The essay may include excessive repetition of the

writer’s ideas or of ideas in the prompt. Focus on the general topic is

usually maintained, but focus on the specific issue in the prompt may

not be maintained. There is little or no evidence of an organizational

structure or of the logical grouping of ideas. Transitions are rarely used.

If present, an introduction and conclusion are minimal. Sentence

structure and word choice are simple. Errors may be frequently

distracting and may significantly impede understanding.

No Score—Blank, Off-Topic, Illegible, Not in English, or Void

How to Score the Writing Test

It is difficult to be objective about one’s own work. However, it is

to your advantage to read your own writing critically. Becoming

your own editor helps you grow as a writer and as a reader. It

may also be helpful for you to give your practice essay to another

reader: a classmate, parent, or teacher. To rate your essay, you

and your reader(s) should review the scoring guidelines and

sample essays at www.actstudent.org/writing, and then assign

your practice essay a score of 1 (low) through 6 (high).

Scoring Guidelines (below)

These are the guidelines that will be used to score your essay. To

score your paper, read your response and try to determine which

score point best describes your essay.

ecause your Writing Test subscore (2–12 range) is the sum of

two readers’ ratings of your essay, you should multiply your score

by 2 when you use Table 4, on page 62, to find your Combined

English/Writing score. If two readers score your practice essay,

add those scores together.

Comparing Your Scores

The Writing Test norms table (Table 3B on page 60) allows you to

compare your score on the practice Writing Test with the scores

of recent high school graduates who took the ACT Plus Writing.

For example, a Writing subscore of 8 has a cumulative percent of

87. This means that 87% of students had a Writing subscore of 8

or lower. Your scores and percents at or below are only estimates

of the scores you will receive on an actual administration of the

ACT Plus Writing. They should be considered in connection with

our performance on other essay tests and your planned college

curriculum.

Scoring Guidelines for the ACT Writing Test

Papers at each level exhibit all or most of the characteristics described at each score point.

Complete these steps to calculate your Combined English/

Writing score for your practice tests.

1. Locate your scale score for the English Test on page 58

and enter it here: ______.

2. Enter your Writing Test score (1–6) here ______ and

double it to get your Writing subscore (2–12): _____

(If two people read and scored your Writing Test, add

hose two scores to get your Writing subscore.)

3. Use the table below to find your Combined

English/Writing score.

• First, circle your ACT English Test score in the left

column.

• Second, circle your ACT Writing subscore at the top

of the table.

• Finally, follow the English Test score row across and

the Writing subscore column down until the two meet.

Circle the Combined English/Writing score where the

row and column meet. (For example, for an English

Test score of 19 and a Writing subscore of 6, the

Combined English/Writing score is 18.)

4. Using the number you circled in the table below, write

our Combined English/Writing score here: ______.

(The highest possible Combined English/Writing score is

36 and the lowest possible score is 1.)

ACT English Test score _________________

Writing subscore _________________

Combined English/Writing Score _______________

(from table below)

TABLE 4

Calculating Your Combined English/Writing Score

Combined English/Writing Scale Scores

English Writing Subscore

Test

Score 2345678910 11 12

112345678910 11

223456678910 11

32345678910 11 12

4345678910 11 12 13

545678910 11 12 12 13

656778910 11 12 13 14

75678910 11 12 13 14 15

8678910 11 12 13 14 15 16

978910 11 12 13 13 14 15 16

10 89910 11 12 13 14 15 16 17

11 8910 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18

12 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19

13 10 11 12 13 14 14 15 16 17 18 19

14 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

15 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21

16 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 20 21

17 13 14 15 16 16 17 18 19 20 21 22

18 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23

19 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24

20 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 21 22 23 24

21 16 17 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25

22 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26

23 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27

24 18 19 20 21 22 23 23 24 25 26 27

25 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28

26 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29

27 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 28 29

28 21 22 23 24 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

29 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31

30 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32

31 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 30 31 32

32 24 25 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33

33 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34

34 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35

35 26 27 28 29 30 31 31 32 33 34 35

36 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36

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